UPSC Prelims 2020 Question Paper with Answers

Option (c) is the correct answer: Critical 'tiger' habitats (CTHs), also known as core areas of tiger reserves—are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), 1972 based on scientific evidence that "such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purpose of tiger conservation, without affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers". The notification of CTH is done by the state government in consultation with the expert committee constituted for the purpose. Nagarjunsagar -Srisailam Tiger Reserve is the largest tiger reserve in India . The reserve spreads over five districts, Kurnool District, Prakasam District, Guntur District, Nalgonda District and Mahbubnagar district. The total area of the tiger reserve is 3,728 km2 (1,439 sq mi).

Statement 1 is not correct: Jet streams occur in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. The actual appearance of jet streams result from the complex interaction between many variables - such as the location of high and low pressure systems, warm and cold air, and seasonal changes.

Statement 2 is correct: The hurricane's center is a relatively calm, generally clear area of sinking air and light winds that usually do not exceed 15 mph (24 km/h) and is typically 20-40 miles (32-64 km) across. An eye will usually develop when the maximum sustained wind speeds go above 74 mph (119 km/h) and is the calmest part of the storm.

Statement 3 is not correct: The eye is the region of lowest surface pressure and warmest temperatures aloft - the eye temperature may be 10°C warmer or more at an altitude of 12 km than the surrounding environment, but only 0-2°C warmer at the surface in the tropical cyclone.

To effectively regulate the groundwater extraction, the Centre, following the NGT’s directions, has divided areas with declining water tables in three categories: Overexploited, Critical, Semi-critical. Areas with an extraction rate of 70-100% of groundwater recharge. Two hundred and fifty six of our approximately 700 districts have groundwater levels which are “critical” or “over-exploited” as per the latest data from the Central Ground Water Board (2017). (Approx 36%) Statement 2 is correct: Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under sub-section (3) of Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the purposes of regulation and control of ground water development and management in the country. Statement 3 is correct: At 39 million hectares (67% of its total irrigation), India has the world's largest groundwater well equipped irrigation system (China with 19 mha is second, USA with 17 mha is third). India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh are, respectively, the first, fourth and sixth largest users of groundwater globally. India pumps more than the US and China combined - the second and third-largest users, respectively.

Vidhisha is an ancient city in Madhya Pradesh state in India. It is also the administrative capital of the district with the same name. It was known as Besnagar in ancient times. Vidhisha city was known as Bhelsa during the Medieval period. Heliodorus Pillar It is a 20 feet and 7 inches tall stone column, believed to be erected by the Greek ambassador of King Antialcidas, the Indo -Greek King of ancient times. It is located on the northern banks of River Vais. The inscriptions on this stone pillar tells us that it was built to pay homage to Lord Vishnu. Emperor Ashoka the Great of Maurya Dynasty, served as the governor of Vidisha during his father’s regime. Shunga dynasty was established by Pushyamitra Shunga, after the fall of the Maurya Empire. Its capital was Pataliputra, but later emperors such as Bhagabhadra also held court at Besnagar (modern Vidisha) in eastern Malwa.

The Hoysala empire ruled a large part of modern day Karnataka and parts of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu from the 10th to the 14th century. Hoysalas had their capital at Dwarasamudra, the modern Halebidu in Belur Taluk. Girinar is one of the most ancient 22th jain Tirthankar lord Neminath prabhu kshetras in India. Lord Neminath performed penance and salvation at the top of the hill. People have to climb 10,000 (ten thousand) steps to have lord neminath paduka darshan.[1] The group temples of Jainism are situated on the Mount Girnar situated near Junagadh in Junagadh district, Gujarat, India. There temples are sacred to the Digambara and the Svetambara branches of Jainism. Girnar, also known as Girinagar ('city -on -the - hill') or Revatak Parvata, is a group of mountains in the Junagadh District of Gujarat, India. Thanesar (sometimes called Thaneswar and, archaically, Sthanishvara) is a historic town and an important Hindu pilgrimage centre on the banks of the Saraswati River in the state of Haryana in northern India. Prabhakarvardhana was a ruler of Thanesar in the early seventh - century CE and was succeeded by his sons, Rajyavardhana and Harshavardhana

The Nubra Valley acts as the gateway to the strategically important Siachen Glacier and Karakoram Pass. The Karakoram Pass in the northwest side connects the valley with Xinjiang, China. The area was once part of ancient Himalayan trade path, the Silk Route that connected China to Middle East. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. The Nubra River is a river in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh in India. It is a tributary of the Shyok River (a part of the Indus River system) and originates from the Siachen Glacier, the second -longest non - polar glacier in the world.

Desert National Park, Rajasthan, India, is situated in the west Indian state of Rajasthan near the towns of Jaisalmer and Barmer. This is one of the largest national parks, covering an area of 3162 km². The Desert National Park is an excellent example of the ecosystem of the Thar Desert. The Desert National Park (DNP) covers an area of 3162 km² of which 1900 km² is in Jaisalmer district and remaining 1262 km² is in Barmer district of Rajasthan State.

Hence statement 1 is correct. The Thar desert is the most thickly populated desert in the world with an average density of 83 persons/km² (compared to 7km² of other deserts) (Baqri and Kankane 2001). However, the human population within the DNP is low (4-5 persons per km²). There are 73 villages and also settlements or Dhanis existing within the Park. These communities have inhabited this area for hundreds of years and with their rich culture and tradition they are an integral part of this ecosystem. Hence statement 2 is not correct. The DNP is the most important site for the long-term survival of the Globally Threatened Great Indian Bustard and other endemic fauna and flora. Other birds of significance include the endangered Oriental Whitebacked vulture Gyps bengalensis and Long-billed Gyps indicus, Stoliczka's Bushchat Saxicola macrorhyncha, Green Munia Amandava formosa MacQueen's or Houbara Bustard Chlamydotis maqueeni. Eleven bird species representative of Biome-13 have been identified by BirdLife International. Hence statement 3 is correct.

The Government of India subsidizes fertilizers to ensure that fertilizers are easily available to farmers and the county remains self -sufficient in agriculture. The same has been achieved largely by controlling the price of fertilizer and the amount of production For example, as per the New Urea Policy of 2015, the government fixes the market price of urea. Also, there is a fixed subsidy component as well. Similarly, for Phosphorous and Potassium, as per the Nutrient Based Subsidy Scheme of 2010, subsidy is provided based on nutrient content per kg of fertilizer. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Fertilizer production uses 1.2% of the world’s total energy out of which 90% is used for ammonia production, which is a key ingredient in the production of nitrogen fertilizers. Ammonia can be produced from natural gas. Hence statement 2 is correct Sulfur is a major by-product of oil refining and gas processing. Most crude oil grades contain some sulfur, most of which must be removed during the refining process to meet strict sulfur content limits in refined products. Industries, for instance, the Mathura oil refinery, have been responsible for producing pollutants like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide. Also, Sulphur is used in phosphoric acid fertilizer (There is a process known as 'The Wet Process' for producing the same). Hence statement 3 is correct.

Ocean heat content (OHC) and Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT) are important climatic parameters required for atmospheric and oceanic studies like cyclone and monsoon predictions and ocean heat transport estimations. Sea surface temperature (SST) is routinely used for predicting whether the total amount of rainfall that India receives during the monsoon season will be less or more than the long -term mean of 887.5 mm. Now, scientists from Pune’s Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) find that ocean mean temperature (OMT) that has better ability to predict this than the sea surface temperature. Compared with SST which has 60% success rate of predicting the Indian summer monsoon, OMT has 80% success rate. Hence statement 2 is correct. The SST is restricted to a few millimetres of the top ocean layer and is largely influenced by strong winds, evaporation, or thick clouds. In contrast, OMT, which is measured up to a depth of 26 degree C isotherm, is more stable and consistent, and the spatial spread is also less. The 26 degree C isotherm is seen at depths varying from 50 –100 metres. During January –March, the mean 26 degree C isotherm depth in the Southwestern Indian Ocean is 59 metres. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Fertigation has some specific advantages over broadcast and band fertilization: (1) A frequent supply of nutrients reduces fluctuation of nutrient concentration in soil. (2) There is efficient utilization and precise application of nutrients according to the nutritional requirements of the crop. (3) Fertilizers are applied throughout the irrigated soil volume and are readily available to plants. (4) Nutrients can be applied to the soil when soil or crop conditions would otherwise prohibit entry into the field with conventional equipment. The pH of the irrigation water is of great importance, as it affects many chemical reactions. In fertigation, the reasons for adjusting the pH to an optimal range are:

1. To allow optimal uptake of nutrients, especially micronutrients;
2. To keep the irrigation system free from clogging. Alkalinity of a fertigation system can be controlled by adding Acid. The injection of acid to the irrigation water should be, as much as possible, uniform and continuous, throughout the entire duration of the irrigation. Drip fertigation increases water and nitrogen use efficiency. Drip fertigation reduced dissolved inorganic and organic N leaching by 90%.. Soluble fertilizers like urea, potash and a wide variety of fertilizer mixtures available in the market could be well mixed with irrigation water, filtered and then passed through the irrigation unit. Rock Phosphate and some other mineral fertilizers containing phosphorus are insoluble in water as well as in citric acid. They are suitable in strongly acid soils or organic soils. These fertilizers are given in green manured fields. The phosphorus is very slowly released by microbes at action and remains in soil for long time. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Option (d) is the correct answer: Crop diversification refers to the addition of new crops or cropping systems to agricultural production on a particular farm taking into account the different returns from value- added crops with complementary marketing opportunities.

Legume Intensification: Legumes fix the atmospheric nitrogen, release in the soil high-quality organic matter and facilitate soil nutrients' circulation and water retention. Based on these multiple functions, legume crops have high potential for conservation agriculture, being functional either as growing crop or as crop residue.

Tensiometer Use: A tensiometer in soil science is a measuring instrument used to determine the  matric water potential in the vadose zone. When the water pressure in the tensiometer is determined to be in equilibrium with the water pressure in the soil, the tensiometer gauge reading represents the matric potential of the soil. Such tensiometers are used in irrigation scheduling to help farmers and other irrigation managers to determine when to water.

Vertical farming is the practice of growing crops in vertically stacked layers. It often incorporates controlled-environment agriculture, which aims to optimize plant growth, and soilless farming techniques such as hydroponics, aquaponics, and aeroponics. In vertical farming, crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature. Japan has been one of the early pioneers in vertical farming. It holds the largest share in the global vertical farming market.

Sugarcane is commercially planted using setts (cuttings which can develop roots) at the rate of 6 -8 tonnes per hectare, amounting to around 10 per cent of the total production. This large mass of planting material creates logistical challenges in transportation and storage of seed cane. The tissue culture technique, owing to its cumbersome outfit and physical limitation, is turning out to be uneconomical. To reduce the mass and improve the quality of seed cane would be to plant excised axillary buds of canestalk, popularly known as budchips. These bud chips are less bulky, easily transportable and more economical seed material. A bud chip nursery can be raised in mini - plot near experimental field. Nutrients are sprayed with PGR (plant growth regulator) solution at 3rd week.

Healthy settlings were transplanted in well prepared field after 4 -5 weeks with row spacing of 90 cm and 30 cm between the two settling (small setts). Hence statement 1 is correct. Various research and experiment shows that, germination percentage of 3 bud sets is higher than the setts having more or less than three buds. Germination percentage of single bud sett is very low because of moisture loss from other cut end. Also if whole can stalk is planted without giving any cut, still germination percentage remain low as only top end will get germinate. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Various researches found that large setts seeds have better survival as compared to singlebudded seeds when seeds are directly planted in prevailing bad weather conditions. Hence statement 3 is not correct. Planting is the most important and labour intensive operation in sugarcane cultivation. To rapidly produce and supply disease-free seed cane of existing commercial varieties Tissue culture is an exciting new way which uses meristem to clone the mother plant. Cane and sugar yield of tissue culture plants similar to conventionally propagated plants. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solar water pumps are a relatively new concept in mechanics. A solar water pump system is commonly seen in residential and commercial uses, as well as for irrigation of agricultural land. Through solar panels, the pump can eliminate the cost of energy and provide a more feasible option that uses energy from the sun (and not fuel -burning mechanisms) for pumping water. Classification and types of solar pumps When it comes to stand -alone solar pumping systems, the main types include rotating and positive displacement pumps. Centrifugal pumps are the common choice for rotation and are designed for fixed head applications. Their output increases in proportion to their speed of rotation. A positive displacement (PD) pump moves a fluid by repeatedly enclosing a fixed volume and moving it mechanically through the system. The pumping action is cyclic and can be driven by pistons, screws, gears, rollers, diaphragms or vanes. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Additionally, pumps are also classified as submersible and surface pumps, based on their placement (underwater and above the waterline).

Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Option (a) is the correct answer: Cotton is grown on a variety of soils across the world. Deep, fertile soil with adequate humus and high water holding capacity and good internal drainage is best suited for growing cotton. Cotton can be grown in places wherever, at least 180 -200 frost free days are available. Optimum temperature for germination 20 -300C. Germination will be delayed if the temperature is

Statement 1 is correct: Many crops are cultivated in both kharif and rabi seasons. Though pulses are grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons, Rabi pulses contribute more than 60 percent of the total production. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crop. It is consumed in variety of ways accross the North to Southin preparation of differnent regular and popular dishes like vada, idli, dosa etc. During kharif, it is cultivated throughout the country. It is best suited to rice fallows during rabi in southern and south-eastern parts of India.

Statement 2 is not correct: Bengal Gram (Desi Chick Pea / Desi Chana), Pigeon Peas (Arhar / Toor / Red Gram), Green Beans (Moong Beans), Chick Peas (Kabuli Chana), Black Matpe (Urad / Mah / Black Gram), Red Kidney Beans (Rajma), Black Eyed Peas (Lobiya), Lentils (Masoor), White Peas (Matar) are major pulses grown and consumed in India. Gram (Chickpeas) is the most dominant pulse having a share of around 40 per cent in the total production followed by Tur/Arhar at 15 to 20 per cent and Urad/Black Matpe and Moong at around 8-10 per cent each. Statement 3 is not correct: The country’s pulses production stood at 234 lakh tonne in the 2018-19 crop year, down from the record level of 254 lakh tonne in 2017 18. The production of pulses for both Rabi and Kharif seasons has increased in the last three decades. Production of Kharif pulses in 2000 -01 was 44.48 lakh tonnes which increased to 55.30 lakh tonnes by 2016 -17. The production of Rabu pulses has also increased from 66.27 lakh tonnes in 2000 -01 to 108.18 lakh tonnes in 2015 -16.

The social cost of carbon (SCC) is an estimate, in dollars, of the economic damages that would result from emitting one additional ton of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. The SCC puts the effects of climate change into economic terms to help policymakers and other decisionmakers understand the economic impacts of decisions that would increase or decrease emissions. The country-level SCC for the India alone is estimated to be about $86 per tonne of CO2. At current emission levels, the Indian economy loses $210 billion annually.

Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Option (a) is the correct answer: Under the National Policy on Biofuels ‘bioethanol’ is defined as ethanol produced from biomass such as sugar containing materials, like sugar cane, sugar beet, sweet sorghum etc.; starch containing materials such as corn, cassava, rotten potatoes, algae etc.; and, cellulosic materials such as bagasse, wood waste, agricultural and forestry residues or other renewable resources like industrial waste.

For Ethanol Production the following raw materials may be potentially used: B-Molasses, Sugarcane juice, biomass in form of grasses, agriculture residues (Rice straw, cotton stalk, corn cobs, saw dust, bagasse etc.) , sugar containing materials like sugar beet, sweet sorghum, etc. and starch containing materials such as corn, cassava, rotten potatoes etc., Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice etc. which are unfit for human consumption, Food grains during surplus phase. Algal feedstock and cultivation of sea weeds can also be a potential feedstock for ethanol production.

For Biodiesel Production: Nonedible Oilseeds, Used Cooking Oil (UCO), Animal tallow, Acid Oil, Algal feedstock etc. For Advanced Biofuels: Biomass, MSW, Industrial waste, Plastic waste etc.

Statement 1 is correct: Zero -till farming is a way of growing wheat crops without tillage or disturbing the soil in harvested fields. Happy Seeder is one of the unique techniques which is used for sowing seed without any burning of Crop residue.

Statement 2 is correct: Direct seeded rice (DSR) has received much attention because of its low - input demand. It involves sowing pre -germinated seed into a puddled soil surface (wet seeding), standing water (water seeding) or dry seeding into a prepared seedbed (dry seeding). Statement 3 is correct: Adopting no -tillage in agro -ecosystems has been widely recommended as a means of enhancing carbon (C) sequestration in soils.

Indian examples of Ancient submerged Port Towns: In India evidences of ship building, port and warehouses installations are datable to Harappan culture. The important Harappan and late Harappan ports were Lothal, Lakhabawal, Kindarkhera, Kuntasi, Megham, Prabhasa, Todio, Amra. The excavations of these sites have yielded antiquities of Bahrain island, Persian gulf, Egypt and Mesopotmia cities. The same maritime traditions continued even during the life time of Buddha, the Mauryas, the Gupta and in later period. During historical period India had trade and cultural contacts with Egypt, Rome, Greeks, Arabs, China and all most all Southeast Asian countries. through these ports.

The ports on the west coast were Barygaya, Suppara, Calliena, Semylla, Mandagore, Palaepatme, Malizigara, Aurranobbas, Byzantine, Naura, Tyndis, Muziris and Nelcynda and the ports on the east coast were Tamralipti, Charitrapur, Paluru, Dantapur, Kalingapatnam, Pithunda, Sopatma, Ghantasala, Poduca, Puhar, Korkai and Camara. Merchants thronging sea -port towns like Mamallapuram, Puhar, and Korkai; or busy customs officials, and those engaged in loading and unloading vessels in the harbor. The wealth of the Roman Empire reached India through the ports of Kalyan, Chaul, Broach, and Cambay in Western India. Tamralipti was an important port in Bengal. It carried on trade with China, Lanka, Java and Sumatra. In the Andhra region, the ports were Kadura and Ghantasala, Kaveripattanam (Puhar) and Tondail were the ports of the Pandya region. The ports of Kottayam and Muziris were on the Malabar coast. There was a great maritime trade between India and Southeast Asia and China.

Option (a) is the correct answer: There are six schedules under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The specified endemic plants in Schedule VI are prohibited from cultivation and planting. The hunting to the Enforcement authorities have the power to compound offences under this Schedule (i.e. they impose fines on the offenders). The wildlife Protection Act defines "specified plant" as any plant specified in Schedule VI. It further states that "Cultivation of specified plants without license prohibited. - (1) no person shall cultivate a specified plant except under, and in accordance with a license granted by the Chief Wildlife Warden or any other officer authorized by the State Government in this behalf; 2) Every license granted under this section shall specify the area in which and the conditions, if any, subject to which the licensee shall cultivate a specified plant."

Statement 1 is correct: As the use of soilless, hydroponic growing methods becomes more prevalent among crop producers, researchers are looking for new materials that can help growers save money, produce healthy plants, and contribute to sustainable practices. biochar, a charcoal-like material produced by heating biomass in the absence of oxygen, can help "close the loop" when used as a substrate for soilless, hydroponic tomato production. "This method could provide growers with a cost-effective and environmentally responsible green-waste disposal method, and supplement substrate, fertilizer, and energy requirements. Statement 2 is correct: Biochar has the potential to boost the natural ability of legumes to fix nitrogen to the soil. Adding biochar to soil not only provides a way to sequester carbon, but also has many soil health benefits which will help farmers adapt to climate change and increase productivity. In addition to supporting the life of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms, biochar can also decrease soil N2O emission, and increase nitrogen use efficiency and nitrogen retention in the soil

Statement 3 is correct: Because of its porous nature, biochar can improve your soil's water retention and water holding capacity – defined as the amount of water that a soil can hold for its crops – so that your plants will have more water available to them for a longer period of time.

Statement 1 is correct: Coal itself isn't a particularly toxic material. But after it's burned, what remains in the ash includes lead, mercury, cadmium, chromium, arsenic, and selenium, all in levels that may threaten human health. Statement 2 is correct: Thermal power plants produce large amounts of nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxide—the pollutants that cause acid rain—when they burn fossil fuels, especially coal, to produce energy.

Statement 3 is correct: India's domestic coal reserves have a high ash content—up to 40 to 45 percent.

The use of waste materials in the road construction industry is gradually gaining significance in India, considering disposal and environmental problems and the gradual depletion of natural resources. Byproducts, such as biomass ash, coal ash, red mud and copper slag, generated in large volumes, could have  applications in the construction of roads, buildings and bridges. Option 1 is correct: The use of copper slag in cement and concrete provides potential environmental as well as economic benefits for all related industries, particularly in areas where a considerable amount of copper slag is produced.

Option 2 is correct and Option 4 is not correct: Cold asphalt mix is produced by mixing unheated mineral aggregate with either emulsified bitumen or foamed bitumen. Unlike hot mix asphalt (HMA), cold asphalt mix does not require any heating of aggregate which makes it economical and relatively pollution-free (no objectionable fumes or odours). Production of cold asphalt mix does not require high investment in equipment, which makes it economical. It is also suitable for use in remote areas. Cold asphalt mixes can be used both for initial construction (100% virgin mixes) and for recycling of asphalt pavements.

Option 3 is correct: Geotextiles are mostly used in road construction, especially to fill gaps between the roads to improve soil structure. Geotextile makes poor soil more beneficial for use and then easy to build in difficult places also. It helps to prevent the erosion of soil but allows the water to drain off.

Option 5 is not correct: roducing the portland cement that binds concrete together is energy intensive and emits enormous amounts of carbon dioxide (CO 2) as well as numerous other pollutants.

Musk deer is a small compact deer belonging to the family Cervidae. A solitary shy animal, the musk deer lives in mountainous regions from Siberia to the Himalayas.

Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary is located 54 km from Pithoragarh near the town of Askot in Uttarakhand. As the name suggests, the sanctuary has been set up primarily for the conservation of musk deer and its natural habitat.

Gangotri National Park is a national park in Uttarkashi District of Uttarakhand in India. Various rare and endangered species like bharal or blue sheep, black bear, brown bear, Himalayan Monal, Himalayan Snowcock, Himalayan Thar, musk deer and Snow leopard are found in the park.

The Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary is a part of the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve near Mailani in Uttar Pradesh, India. It covers an area of 227 km2 (88 sq mi) and was founded in 1972. The tiger, chital, hog deer, wild boars, otters, and many more animals find themselves a home here.

Option 1 is correct: Steel slag, a by-product of steel making, is produced during the separation of the molten steel from impurities in steel-making furnaces. One of the ingredients of asphalt is steel slag, a by-product of the steel and iron production processes. Asphalt roads are made of a mixture of aggregates, binders and fillers. The aggregates are typically iron and/or steel slag, sand, gravel or crushed rock, and they are bound together with asphalt itself, which is a bitumen.

Option 2 is correct: Steel slags can be used in several activities, such as construction and paving, and also in the agricultural sector due to its ability to correct soil acidity, as it contains some nutrients for the plants and also as silicate fertilizer that is capable of providing silicon to the plants.

Option 3 is correct: Steel slag, another waste from Iron & Steel Industry, has shown potential for use as a raw mix component up to 10% in the manufacture of cement clinker. Steel slag can also replace granulated blast furnace slag up to 10% in the manufacture of Portland Slag Cement. Steel slag has been used successfully to treat acidic water discharges from abandoned mines.

Barasingha also known as swamp deer is one of the largest species of deer found in India, known for its distinctive character of twelve tined stags. Today, Swamp deer or Barasingha only found in the Kanha National Park of Madhya Pradesh, Kaziranga and Manas National Parks of Assam and large population in Dudhwa National Park of Uttar Pradesh.

Kanha Tiger Reserve has a significant population of Bengal tiger, Indian wild dog and barasingha deer in India. The park is the reintroduction site of barasingha and first tiger reserve in India to introduce Barasingha as officially mascot.

There are three subspecies of swamp deer found in the Indian Subcontinent. The western swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii) found in Nepal, southern swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi) found in central and north India and eastern swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii ranjitsinhi) found in the Kaziranga and Dudhwa National Parks. The southern swamp deer has hard hooves and is adapted to hard ground. The other two subspecies are adapted to swampy areas. Hence the correct answer is option (a).

The Sri Lanka frogmouth, Sri Lankan frogmouth or Ceylon frogmouth is a small frogmouth (The frogmouths are a group of nocturnal birds) found in the Western Ghats of south India and Sri Lanka.

The coppersmith barbet, also called crimson-breasted barbet and coppersmith, is an Asian barbet with crimson forehead and throat, known for its metronomic call that sounds similar to a coppersmith striking metal with a hammer. It is a resident bird in the Indian subcontinent and parts of Southeast Asia.

The grey-chinned minivet is a species of bird in the family Campephagidae. It is found from the Himalayas to China, Taiwan and Southeast Asia.

The white-throated redstart is a species of bird in the family Muscicapidae. It is found in Nepal, Bhutan, central China and far northern areas of Myanmar and Northeast India. Its natural habitat is temperate forests. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Option 1 is correct: Nagarhole National Park, also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park, is a wildlife reserve in the South Indian state of Karnataka. Nagarhole National Park is in the Cauvery Basin. Option 2 is not correct: Papikonda National Park is located near Rajamahendravaram in the Papi Hills in East Godavari and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh, and covers an area of 1,012.86 km2 (391.07 sq mi). It is an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area and home to some endangered species of flora and fauna. River Godavari flows through Papikonda National Park. Option 3 is correct:

Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is a protected area and tiger reserve in the Eastern Ghats in the Erode District of the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It is located at the confluence of two distinct geographical regions of bio diversity landscape; Western Ghat and Eastern Ghat. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve, the Gateway to Eastern Ghats, is a significant ecosystem and a wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats and a genetic link between the five other protected areas which it adjoins, including the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park, Bandipur National Park and the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary.

Option 4 is correct: The Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is an animal sanctuary in Wayanad, Kerala, India. Kabini river (a tributary of Cauvery river) flows through the sanctuary.

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian elephant is one of three extant recognised subspecies of the Asian elephant and native to mainland Asia. The oldest female in an elephant herd is always the leader. Statement 2 is correct: Elephants have the longest gestation period of all mammals. The average gestation period of an elephant is about 640 to 660 days, or roughly 95 weeks.

Statement 3 is not correct: Female elephants live for 60 to 70 years, but only have about four offspring throughout their lifetime. Fertility decreases after age 50 in elephants, but the pattern differed from a total loss of fertility in menopausal women with many elephants continuing to reproduce at least until the age of 65 years. Therefore it is not till the age of 40 years only.

Statement 4 is not correct: South India had the highest number of wild elephants - 14,612. Among the south Indian states, Karnataka leads the table with 6,049 elephants followed by Kerala. 

The word Parivrajaka means "roaming ascetic". A wandering religious mendicant. Although this term occurs in the early Brahmanic tradition of the Upaniṣads, it is also applicable to Buddhist and Jain monks, as well as to Hindu saṃnyāsins. The Pāli equivalent is paribbājaka.

Vedic Brahmanism - drawing its identity from the Vedic corpus - was a religious form associated with socially dominant groups, supporting practices and beliefs that could be seen as an orthodoxy, there have been movements that have distanced themselves in various ways from Vedic Brahmanism. The Shramana group - Buddhism, Jainism and  various 'heterodox' sects - is one such well-established group. shramanas did not regard the brahmans as being of the highest status. The shramanas included a variety of ascetics, as well as the monks and lay followers of various sects - Buddhist, Jaina, Ajivika and others.

Monks renounced social obligations to take on an alternative life when they joined the Order. They lived as equal members of the Order, denying caste distinctions. But they lived in monasteries near villages and towns so that they could draw on the support of the lay community, namely, those who were Buddhists or Jainas but were not initiated into renunciatory groups. Lay followers were referred to as upasaka and upasika.

1. Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. It can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum of up to one year from the date of issue (short-term). Hence statement 1 is correct.
2. Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a negotiable money market instrument and is issued in dematerialised form against funds deposited at a bank or other eligible financial institution for a specified time period. Issued by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India, the CD is a promissory note, the interest on which is paid by the financial institution. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
3. Call money rate is the rate at which short term funds are borrowed and lent in the money market among banks on a day-to-day basis. Banks resort to this type of loan to fill the asset liability mismatch, comply with the statutory CRR and SLR requirements and to meet the sudden demand of funds. Hence statement 3 is correct.
4. Bonds are a type of debt instrument. Zero Coupon Bonds are issued at a discount and redeemed at par. No interest payment is made on such bonds at periodic intervals before maturity. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation, Ministry Of Agriculture And Farmers' Welfare, declares Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for 22 mandated crops, and Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for Sugarcane.

[Cereals (7) - paddy, wheat, barley, jowar, bajra, maize and ragi Pulses (5) - gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad and lentil

Oilseeds (8) - groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soyabean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed and nigerseed Raw cotton, Raw jute, Copra].

The idea behind MSP is to give guaranteed price and assured market to the farmers and protect them from the price fluctuations and market imperfections.

CACP considers various factors such as the cost of cultivation and production, productivity of crops, and market prices for the determination of MSPs. MSP fixed for each crop is uniform for the entire country. However, there is no instance of MSP being fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

While the government announces MSP for 23 crops, effective MSP-linked procurement occurs mainly for wheat, rice and cotton. The procurement is also limited to a few states. Due to limitations on the procurement side (both crop-wise and state-wise) and even after having an open-ended procurement at MSP, all farmers do not receive benefits of an increase in MSP. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Originating in the icy headwaters of the Tibetan highlands, the Mekong River flows through the steep canyons of China, known as the upper basin, through lower basin countries Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, and Cambodia, before fanning across an expansive delta in Vietnam and emptying into the South China Sea.

Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The River Thames is the longest river in England, flowing 215 miles from the Cotswolds to the North Sea. Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Volga is the longest river in Europe, and its catchment area is almost entirely inside Russia. It belongs to the closed basin of the Caspian Sea, being the longest river to flow into a closed basin.

Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Zambezi is the fourth-longest river in Africa, the longest east-flowing river in Africa and the largest flowing into the Indian Ocean from Africa.

Inflation can be described as the general rise in the price of goods and services in an economy over time. It is calculated by tracking the increase in prices of essentials. The Methods To Calculate Inflation CPI

• The primary index that tracks the change in retail prices of essential goods and services consumed by Indian households is the Consumer Price Index or CPI. It shows the impact of inflation on people
• It is always used for Dearness Allowance. Now, it is also being used for monetary policy formulation.
• Since 2010, based on the Rangarajan Committee;s report, CPI (URBAN), CPI (RURAL), CPI (COMBINED) and CFPI- food indice are calculated therein
• It covers both goods and services
• 200 Goods and services are taken- It is a selected basket of goods and services. The weightage of food in the CPI is close to 50% (The weightage for food is lower in WPI). Hence statement 1 is correct WPI
• While retail inflation looks at the price at which the consumer buys the product, WPI is measured based on prices at the wholesale level. WPI measures the changes  in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses. It reflects the inflation in the economy in general/ general level of inflation or price level in the economy.
• Another difference between the two indices is that the wholesale market is only for goods, you cannot buy services on a wholesale basis. So WPI does not include services, whereas the retail price index does.

WPI, unlike the Consumer Price Index (CPI), only tracks the prices of goods purchased by consumers. Hence statement 2 is correct • 697 goods are taken:-Primary goods, Fuel and power and Manufacturing goods, the latter being given the maximum weightage (64.23%) • Wholesale prices are considered • Base year= 2012

Based on the suggestions of the Urjit Patel committee, monetary policy (MP) in India is to be formulated in reference to the CPI (instead of WPI) based inflation. (The suggestion was accepted in 2014 itself.) The reason is that: i) CPI shows the impact on the people- WPI indicates the wholesale price, whereas CPI shows the retail price i.e. the price at which people make purchases from retail market. WPI does not show the impact of inflation on the people. Any policy shud consider the impact on the people ii) WPI does not account for the price in services iii) It is an international best practice- most of the countries have shifted to CPI

Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Kisan Credit Card Scheme (KCC) • It is a type of loan given to farmers • The scheme was introduced in 1998 • It is not a credit card for farmers. Hence statements 2 and 5 are not correct.

• It is like an overdraft scheme for farmers- One can overdraw upto a limit. And interest has to be paid on the amount so overdrawn. • Also, the limit of overdraft is fixed on the basis of the value of land, though the value of crop may also be considered. The Features of This Scheme
• Farmers need money before sowing. For example, to buy seeds, fertilisers etc. • In this scheme, they have to pay back the loan amount/ overdraft after the harvest.
• Also, interest charged is concessional- 4,5,6%- But if they fail to payback post the harvest, then the interest charged increases to 13-14%- The subsidy component is, thus, removed.
• The scheme has been very successful- More than 10 crore KCCs have already been issued.
• Commercial, cooperative, Regional Rural Banks- All types of banks isssue KCCs
• Also, the loans given to farmers through KCC are counted in Priority Sector Lending- It is a means of giving loans to farmers.
• It is very helful and beneficial for farmers, as in order to increase agricultural production, the farmers need to buy various inputs such as seeds, fertilisers etc.

This not only leads to an increase in farmers’ income but also in an increase in agricultural production Objectives/Purpose Kisan Credit Card Scheme aims at providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system under a single window to the farmers for their cultivation & other needs as indicated below: a. To meet the short term credit requirements for cultivation of crops b. Post harvest expenses c. Produce Marketing loan d. Consumption requirements of farmer household

• Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture, like dairy animals, inland fishery etc. f. Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pump sets, sprayers, dairy animals etc.

Hence statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

The G20 (or Group of Twenty) is an international forum for the governments and central bank governors from 19 countries and the European Union (EU). It was founded in 1999 with the aim to discuss policy pertaining to the promotion of international financial stability.

The members of the G20 are: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India,  Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, United Kingdom, United States, and the European Union. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Bilateral trade between India and Sri Lanka has increased by around 9 times between 2000-01 and 2018-19. Total trade between the two countries was US$ 6.2  billion in 2018-19, out of which India’s exports to Sri Lanka were US$ 4.7 billion and imports were US$ 1.5 billion. Although India has always had a trade surplus with Sri Lanka, the gas has widened since 2008-09. In 2012-13 and 2016-17 the trade slumped, thus disturbing the steady increase in the graph. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Bangladesh is India’s biggest trade partner in South Asia. Bilateral trade between India and Bangladesh has grown steadily over the last decade. India’s exports to Bangladesh in FY 2018-19 stood at $9.21 billion and imports during the same period was at $1.04 billion. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

According to the World Bank, India exports $2.25 billion-worth textile and clothing products to Bangladesh. In turn, it imports $336 million-worth textile and clothing products from Dhaka. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Option 1 is correct: MSP results in a diversion of stocks from the open market, thus, driving up the price for the ultimate consumers. Further, MSP prevents the prices from going down (directly). Price will not go below the MSP- The farmer can sell the produce to the government at the MSP. It will also prevent the price from going up (indirectly)- The price will shoot up only when the production is less, but if the production will increase, then the prices will not be too high.

Option 2 is correct: Though factors like climatic shocks determine rice production and prices in the short run, the future scenario of rice prices must be based on long-term projections of rice demand and supply. Trading results in an increased demand in the international markets, which affects the price of rice in India.

Option 3 is correct: Low stock levels constrain the ability to buffer the price rise resulting from other factors.

Option 4 is correct: Subsidies lower the prices for the ultimate consumer.

Hence all the given factors affect/ have affected the price of rice in the country.

The interest coverage ratio is a debt ratio and profitability ratio used to determine how easily a company can pay interest on its outstanding debt. A higher coverage ratio is better, although the ideal ratio may vary by industry. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

The Interest coverage ratio is also called “times interest earned.” Lenders, investors, and creditors often use this formula to determine a company's riskiness relative to its current debt or for future borrowing.

The interest coverage ratio is used to see how well a firm can pay the interest on outstanding debt.

Also called the times-interest-earned ratio, this ratio is used by creditors and prospective lenders to assess the risk of lending capital to a firm.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Public Investment here refers to the creation of either physical infrastructure or intangible capital. Hence in this context, investment is understood as either infrastructure -related capital as given in options 2 and 6 or social capital as given in option 3. Subsidies and loan waivers are not investments. Hence option 1 is not correct (There is scope for elimination here). Hence option (c) is the correct answer. Similarly, option 4 (subisdy) and 5 are not correct.

Cyber Insurance is designed to guard businesses from the potential effects of cyber-attacks. It helps an organisation mitigate risk exposure by ofsetting costs, after a cyber-attack/breach has happened. To simplify, cyber Insurance is designed to cover the fees, expenses and legal costs associated with cyber breaches that occur after an organisation has been hacked or from theft or loss of client/employee information. In India, cyber insurance covers (generally) the following: Identity theft

Cyber-bullying and cyber-stalking

Cyber extortion

Malware intrusion

Financial loss due to unauthorized and fraudulent use of bank account, credit card and mobile wallets Legal expenses arising out of any covered risk

Social Media Cover

Phishing Cover

E-mail Spoofing

Media Liability Claims Cover

Cyber Extortion Cover

Privacy Breach and Data Breach by Third Party. Hence only options 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

District Central Co-operative Banks (DCCBs) are a type of rural co-operatives, along with State Co-operative Banks (StCBs) and Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS). Short-term co-operatives are arranged in a three-tier structure in most of the states, with StCBs at the apex level, DCCBs at the intermediate level and PACS at the grassroots level.

1. Although the focus of rural cooperative lending is agriculture, the share in credit flow to agriculture of rural cooperatives is only 12.1%, as compared to 76% of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs), and 11.9% of Regional Rural Banks. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
2. DCCBs mobilise deposits from the public and provide credit to the public and PACS. Hence statement 2 is correct.        

In NITI Aayog’s paper “Changing Structure of Rural Economy of India Implications for Employment and Growth 2017”, following observations were made:

1. The absolute level of income per worker i.e. worker productivity has increased for both rural and urban areas. For rural areas it was Rs. 37273 in 2004-05 and Rs. 101755 in 2011-12, while for urban areas it was Rs. 120419 in 2004-05 and Rs. 282515 in 2011-12. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
2. As per 2011 Census, 68.8% of India’s population and 72.4% of workforce resided in rural areas. However, steady transition to urbanization over the years has led to a decline in the rural share in the workforce, from 77.8% in 1993-94 to 70.9% in 2011-12. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
3. About two third of rural income is now generated in non-agricultural activities. Non-farm economy has increased in rural areas. The share of agriculture in rural economy has decreased from 57% in 1993-94 to 39% in 2011-12. Hence statement 3 is correct.
4. After 2004-05, the rural areas have witnessed negative growth in employment inspite of high growth in output. The growth rate of rural employment was 1.45% during 1994-2005, which fell to -0.28% between 2005-12. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Expansionist/expansionary monetary policy is when the central bank of a country increases money supply to stimulate the economy.

The tools used by the RBI to control money supply in the economy can be quantitative or qualitative. Quantitative tools control the extent of money supply by changing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), or Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), or bank rate or Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) that includes Marginal Standing Facility (MSF).

If RBI changes reserve ratios, this would lead to changes in lending by the banks which, in turn, would impact the deposits and hence, the money supply.

1. SLR is the ratio of liquid assets  to the demand and time liabilities (NDTL). RBI increases SLR to reduce bank credit during the time of inflation. Similarly, it reduces SLR during the time of recession to increase bank credit. Therefore, cutting and optimising SLR is something the RBI would do under its expansionist monetary policy.
2. MSF is an emergency window available to scheduled banks to borrow from RBI on an overnight basis by pledging government securities. Increase the MSF rate of interest will make borrowing costly, and thus is something that the RBI would not do as part of its expansionist monetary policy.
3. The rate of interest charged by RBI on loans extended to commercial banks is called Bank Rate. Repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks by purchasing securities. Lower bank rates and repo rates would reduce the cost of borrowing, and thus will increase liquidity in the economy. Cutting bank rate and repo rate is something the RBI would do under its expansionist monetary policy. Therefore, correct option is (b) 2 only

Under the Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures of the World Trade Organization (WTO), (TRIMs Agreement), WTO members have agreed not to apply certain investment measures related to trade in goods that restrict or distort trade. (TRIMs Agreement is a multilateral agreement on trade in goods, and not services). Hence statement 2 is not correct.

The TRIMs Agreement prohibits certain measures that violate the national treatment (Article III) and quantitative restrictions requirements (Article XI) of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) 1994. The list of TRIMs agreed to be inconsistent with these articles includes measures which require:

• particular levels of local procurement by an enterprise (“local content requirements”), - restrict the volume or value of imports such an enterprise can purchase, - use to an amount related to the level of products it exports (“trade balancing requirements”).

Hence statement 1 is correct.

TRIMs Agreement stipulates that certain measures adopted by Governments to regulate FDI can cause trade-restrictive and distorting effects. However, the agreement is only concerned with the trade effects of investment measures. It is not intended to deal with the regulation of investment as such and does not impact directly on WTO members’ ability to regulate and place conditions upon the entry and establishment of foreign investment. Hence statement 3 is correct.

The nuclear reactors in India are placed under IAEA safeguards only if they are fuelled by uranium procured from abroad. There are at present 22 operational reactors, of which 14 are under the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards as these use imported fuel. India currently imports uranium from Russia, Kazakhstan and Canada. Plans are also afoot to procure the fuel from Uzbekistan and Australia. By placing the reactors under the  IAEA safeguards, India gives the international nuclear energy watchdog access to them. This step was taken by the country in 2014 to demonstrate that its nuclear energy programme was for peaceful purposes. It was a necessary step under the Indo-US nuclear deal. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

West Texas Intermediate (WTI) crude oil is a specific grade of crude oil and one of the main three benchmarks in oil pricing, along with Brent and Dubai Crude. WTI is known as a light sweet oil because it contains 0.24% sulfur and has a low density, making it "light." Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

2020 was USD 133.14 billion, as compared to USD 210.39 billion of imports during the same period.            

Hence statement 1 is correct. 2. Commodity-wise composition of imports between 2011-12 and 2018-19 shows that imports of iron and steel, organic chemicals, industrial machinery have registered positive growth rates as % of share in imports.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 3. India’s net services (service exports - service imports) has been in surplus. India’s Service exports during April-August 2019-2020 was USD 67.24 billion, as compared to USD 39.25 billion of imports during the same period.

Hence statement 3 is correct. 4. Current Account Deficit (CAD) or trade deficit is the shortfall between exports and imports. As per Economic Survey 2019-20, India’s CAD was 2.1% in 2018-19, and 1.5% of GDP in H1 of 2019-20. Hence statement 4 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 1, 3 and 4 only.

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is the investment by a non-resident entity/person resident outside India in the capital of an Indian company under Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of Security by a Person Resident Outside India) Regulations, 2017.

The investment is done through capital instruments in (1) an unlisted Indian company; or (2) 10% or more of the post issue paid-up equity capital on a fully diluted basis of a listed Indian company. Hence, option a is incorrect. The investment can be made in equities or equity linked instruments or debt instruments issued by the company. Thus, FDI isn’t directly associated with government securities, and hence option (d) is incorrect.

Generally, FDI takes place when an investor establishes foreign business operations or acquires foreign business assets, including establishing ownership or controlling interest in a foreign company (investments linked with equities), transfer of technology. This means they aren’t just bringing money with them, but also knowledge, skills and technology. Debt servicing is the regular repayment of interest and principal on a debt for a particular period. Thus, option c is incorrect. A non-debt creating capital flow is the one where there is no direct repayment obligation for the residents. FDI is largely a non-debt creating capital flow, and therefore option (b) is correct.  

There are 4 concepts of money supply: M1, M2, M3 and M4 1) M1 = C + DD + OD C- Is the currency held by the public. (Public money means that money which is held by everybody other than the government and the banks. It includes companies, general organisations, households. It does not include inter-bank or government deposits in banks) DD- Means net demand deposits with banks. ‘Net’ here indicates the deposits of only the public in banks. OD- Means other deposits.These are the deposits with the RBI, held by certain individuals and institutions • Individuals - like the former governors of the RBI • institutions- like IMF deposits 2) M3 = M1 + TD = C + DD + OD + TD (Broad money) 'TD' means time deposits M3 shows the total purchasing power in the economy. Therefore, when we say money supply in general, it means M3. So, normally, in newspapers etc. when the word money supply is used, it means M3 (Sometimes, M1 is also used - meaning 100% liquid money - but overall PP is shown by M3) Now, in the given case, while the 'DD' component will fall by Rs. 1,00,000, the 'C' component will increase by Rs. 1,00,000, thereby, leaving the money supply unchanged. Hence option (d) is the correct answer

If a global financial crisis happens in the future, lesser exposure to the foreign financial markets is likely to give some immunity to India. Option 1 is correct: Short -term borrowings would lead to the burden of paying back the debt, and could result in stressful conditions for the borrowing economy/ India. Option 2 is not correct: Opening up to more foreign banks would lead to an enhanced exposure to the global economy, and hence an increased risk. Option 3 is not correct: Currency convertibility refers to a situation in which a currency can be converted into a foreign currency, and vice -versa at the prevailing exchange rate without any government intervention. In India, we cannot completely convert rupees to dollars - There are restrictions to the same. Now, capital account convertibility is the freedom to convert domestic currency into a foreign currency, and vice -versa wrt capital account transactions of the Balance of Payments accounts. It could also be the freedom to convert domestic financial assets (like rupees) / liabilities into foreign assets / liabilities and vice -versa. It is more risky, as the foreign investors can withdraw all their money at once which called capital flight. Risks associated with full capital account convertability:

• It increases the vulnerability of the domestic economy to external economic shocks. Hence the economy becomes unstable - For example, during the American recession - countries that were more connected were affected more.
• Flight of capital - i.e. the withdrawal of huge foreign exchange within a short period of time. If full convertibility is not there, the RBI can check the complete withdrawal of funds. (This flight of capital happened in the South East Asian crisis of 1997. For these Asian tigers - the fastest growing economies of the world
  • the current account was in a deficit, but there was significant inflow in their capital accounts. However, as interest rates in America increased, people withdrew their money and foreign exchange began to deplete. The people began to fear that they would not be able to take their money out. Out of this fear, everybody started to withdraw their investments
  • FDI was also withdrawn and the recession set in- they collapsed in one go!)
• It increases volatility in the domestic financial markets • The capital Account is potentially more volatile than the current account- People cannot start consuming double/ triple/ four times the previous amount. But investment in shares accumulates, and the entire money can be immediately withdrawn.

Sources of exposure to benzene:

Human exposure to benzene has been associated with a range of acute and long -term adverse health effects and diseases, including cancer and aplastic anaemia. Active and passive exposure to tobacco smoke is also a significant source of exposure. Benzene is highly volatile, and most exposure is through inhalation. Natural sources of benzene include volcanoes and forest fires. Benzene is also a natural part of crude oil, gasoline, and cigarette smoke. Industrial processes As benzene occurs naturally in crude petroleum at levels up to 4 g/l, human activities using petroleum lead to exposure.

These activities include processing of petroleum products, coking of coal, production of toluene, xylene and other aromatic compounds, and use in industrial and consumer products, as a chemical intermediate and as a component of petrol (gasoline) and heating oils. The presence of benzene in petrol and as a widely used industrial solvent can result in significant occupational exposure and widespread emissions to the environment. Automobile exhaust accounts for the largest source of benzene in the general environment.

Sources of exposure to benzene Human exposure to benzene has been associated with a range of acute and long -term adverse health effects and diseases, including cancer and aplastic anaemia. Active and passive exposure to tobacco smoke is also a significant source of exposure. Benzene is highly volatile, and most exposure is through inhalation. Natural sources of benzene include volcanoes and forest fires. Benzene is also a natural part of crude oil, gasoline, and cigarette smoke. Industrial processes As benzene occurs naturally in crude petroleum at levels up to 4 g/l, human activities using petroleum lead to exposure.

These activities include processing of petroleum products, coking of coal, production of toluene, xylene and other aromatic compounds, and use in industrial and consumer products, as a chemical intermediate and as a component of petrol (gasoline) and heating oils. The presence of benzene in petrol and as a widely used industrial solvent can result in significant occupational exposure and widespread emissions to the environment. Automobile exhaust accounts for the largest source of benzene in the general environment. contain: nonane, decane, undecane, dimethyloctane, dimethylnonane, trimethylnonane, trimethylbenzene. During fires, polyurethane foams burn rapidly and produce dense smoke, toxic gases and intense heat. Carbon monoxide is most common, but smoke also contains benzene, toluene, nitrogen oxides and hydrogen cyanide.

The most important difference between a plant cell and an animal cell is that the former has a cell wall. A cell wall gives mechanical support to a plant cell. Animal cells do not have cell walls. Plants have both a cell wall that is made up of cell membrane (plasma membrane) and cellulose. The cell wall is, a rigid membrane matrix found on the surface of all plant cells whose primary role is to protect the cell and its content. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

Plant cells have a large central vacuole that can occupy up to 90% of the cell’s volume. Animal cells may have many small vacuoles, a lot smaller than the plant cell. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a technology for authenticating users and devices in the digital world. The basic idea is to have one or more trusted parties digitally sign documents certifying that a particular cryptographic key belongs to a particular user or device. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

A conjugate vaccine is a type of vaccine which combines a weak antigen with a strong antigen as a carrier so that the immune system has a stronger response to the weak antigen. A Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) is a pneumococcal vaccine which gives prevention against pneumococcal diseases, that are infections caused by bacteria called Streptococcus pneumoniae, or pneumococcus. Pneumococcal infections can range from ear and sinus infections to pneumonia and bloodstream infections. A pneumococcal vaccine is also commonly called pneumonia vaccine and can prevent septicaemia (a kind of blood poisoning, also called sepsis) and meningitis. Hence statement 1 is correct.

While vaccines are not intended to replace antibiotics, they can contribute to reduce AMR (Antimicrobial Resistance or drug resistance) by preventing (resistant) bacterial diseases and their transmission, and by reducing antibiotic use and misuse. PCVs for pneumococcos can potentially reduce the dependence on antibiotics by nearly 50 fifty percent per Hence statement 2 is correct.

Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines can have side effects ranging from fever, loss of appetite to headache, fussiness. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Germline gene therapy targets the reproductive cells, meaning any changes made to the DNA will be passed on to the next generation. Consequently, the practice has dramatically divided opinion. Germline gene therapy is when DNA is transferred into the cells that produce reproductive cells, eggs or sperm, in the body.  Hence statement 1 is correct.

Although germline gene therapy is illegal, embryonic genetic editing is different from that and is possible to make genome changes to eliminate the vertical trasfer (through inheritance) of certain diseases and medical conditions. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Human -animal chimeras are animals bearing human cells and organs. They offer insights into early human development and disease onset and provide a realistic drug -testing platform. Researchers have experimented by injecting several different forms of human stem cells into pig embryos to see which cell -type would survive best. The cells that survived longest and showed the most potential to continue to develop were intermediate human pluripotent stem cells. Hence statement 3 is correct.

The experimental research on black holes using gravitational waves expanded following the second detection of gravitational waves by the LIGO detector. After the success of the LISA Pathfinder experiment, the evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA) project is a plan of setting into space three spacecraft, a mother and two daughter spacecraft, which will fly in a triangular formation, trailing the earth in its orbit around the sun at a distance of over 50 million km. Each arm of the imaginary triangle, from the mother to each daughter spacecraft, will measure about a million km. Inside these spacecraft will float “freely falling” test masses – cubes with sides measuring abut 46 mm. Laser interferometers will accurately measure changes in the distance between these cubes. If they should be affected by a gravitational wave, the minute changes in this distance are measure by the interferometer. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Drone technology has been used by defense organizations for quite some time. However, the benefits of this technology extends well beyond just these sectors e.g. emergency response, humanitarian relief, healthcare, disease control, weather forecasting etc. Recently, Australian scientists used drones (that flew 200 metres above the blowholes of whales) to collect the mucus of whales from their water sprays to examine their health.The whale spray collected by a drone contains DNA, proteins, lipids and types of bacteria. Hence option 3 is correct. Drones have also been used to study the craters of active volcanoes to know about their recent activities, a place which human beings cannot directly access.

Hence option 2 is correct. Recently, the use of drones tospray pesticides (in Telengana) was in the news. It is considered illegal in India. But in the US it is legally practised in many states. Hence option 1 is correct. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are cylindrical large molecules consisting of a hexagonal arrangement of hybridized carbon atoms, which may by formed by rolling up a single sheet of graphene (single-walled carbon nanotubes, SWCNTs) or by rolling up multiple sheets of graphene (multiwalled carbon nanotubes, MWCNTs). Hence structurally, carbon nanotubes (CNTs) can be viewed as wrapped from graphene sheets. Carbon nanotubes were once considered to be resistant to chemical damage due to their rigid and perfect chemical structure, which rendered them immune to biodegradation. However, enzymes like peroxidase were found to play an important role in the process of biodegradation of carbon nanotubes. Hence option 4 is correct.

NASA has demonstrated the use of carbon nanotube arrays as biosensors. Hence option 3 is correct. Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) are characterized by unique chemical and biological properties. CNTs have a large surface area that allows them to attach a wide range of biological substances. In addition, CNTs are able to penetrate through cell membranes, capillaries, and accumulated in cells and tissues. It is expected that enabling technology would facilitate the making of nanodevices using these blood -compatible nanomaterials as building blocks for biomedical applications such as artificial implants, including structural tissue replacements, that is, artificial blood vessels, or functional devices such as drug delivery matrixes. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Blockchain technology is a structure that stores transactional records, also known as the block, of the public in several databases, known as the “chain,” in a network connected through peer -to -peer nodes. Typically, this storage is referred to as a ‘digital ledger.’ In simpler words, the digital ledger is like a Google spreadsheet shared among numerous computers in a network, in which, the transactional records are stored based on actual purchases. The fascinating angle is that anybody can see the data, but they cannot corrupt it. Hence statement 1 is correct. The words “block” stands for digital information and “chain” stands for public database. Specifically, they have three parts: Blocks store information about transactions like the date, time, and dollar amount of your most recent purchase from any online site that works on a blockchain principle. Blocks store information about who is participating in transactions. Instead of using your actual name, your purchase is recorded without any identifying information using a unique “digital signature,” sort of like a username.

Blocks store information that distinguishes them from other blocks. Even though the details of your new transaction would look nearly identical to your earlier purchase, we can still tell the blocks apart because of their unique codes. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Blockchains can be both permissioned and nonpermissioned (permissionless). Public blockchain, typically permissionless as well, is the type associated with Bitcoin (the application depends on the basic features), where access and validation are open to participants, achieving high degree of decentralization. In private permissioned blockchain a trusted entity controls the validation and writing of data permissions. Hence statement 3 is correct.

The signals in the 380 -780 nm wavelength interval of the electromagnetic spectrum are the light signals that can be detected by the human eye. It is possible to achieve illumination and data transfer simultaneously by means of LEDs that is the prominent lighting equipment lately. By this way, both interior lighting of a room and data transfer will be achieved without the need of an additional communication system.

This technology is given the name of Visual Light Communication. Hence statement 1 is correct. Technological advances allow to modulate the light at higher frequencies, allowing richer information. Light can be transmitted across a free space (e.g., lasers communicating between two buildings) or across a medium (e.g., fiber optics). With the advent of LED, a new idea in VLC is to use general lighting to communicate with users in a space as a replacement or supplement to Wi -Fi. While traditional light sources present practical limitations, LED lighting can be modulated at very high frequencies, with a cycle as short as nanoseconds. This concept, called Li -Fi, could be a solution to RF bandwidth limitations as the visible light spectrum is 10,000 larger than the radio spectrum. As a bonus, VLC doesn’t cause electromagnetic interference. Hence statement 4 is correct. The light can transmit information either directly or reflected from a surface. It can do so while dimmed. However, light cannot penetrate obstacles such as walls.

Thus for wireless communication purposes VLC cannot be used for long -distances. Hence statement 2 is not correct. While Bluetooth transmits data at the rate of 300kbps (kilobytes per second), VLC can transmit data in the range between mbps -gbps (megabytes per second to gigabytes per second). Hence statement 3 is correct.

Artificial Intelligence (AI) refers to the simulation of human intelligence in machines that are programmed to think like humans and mimic their actions. Artificial Intelligence has various applications in today's society. in multiple industries, such as Healthcare, entertainment, finance, education, etc. AI has been used in disease diagnosis, creating songs like 'I am AI' and 'Daddy's Car' and creating short stories and fictions. AI has been used in Text -to -speech conversion, e.g. Cerewave AI. Artificial Intelligence has also found use in power industry, e.g. Machine -learning assisted power transfer (based on AI) using magnetic resonance and AI used for energy efficiency. Hence all the options are correct.

A pronucleus (plural: pronuclei) is the nucleus of a sperm or an egg cell during the process of fertilization. Pronuclear Transfer is used in mitochondrial transfer techniques. Pronuclear transfer is the transfer of pronuclei from one zygote to another. This technique first requires fertilisation of healthy donated egg (provided by the mitochondrial donor) with the intending male parent sperm. Simultaneously, the intending mother's affected oocytes (an immature egg cell) are fertilised with the intending father's sperm. Both sets of fertilised oocytes (that of the mother and the donor) are allowed to develop to the early zygote stage where the pronuclei are visible. Using micromanipulation equipment, the pronuclei of zygotes formed from donated oocytes are removed within a karyoplast (A cellular nucleus together with a plasma membrane containing a small amount of cytoplasm) and discarded. Therapeutic pronuclear transfer involves the movement of two pronuclei from the affected zygotes (also in the form of a karyoplast), into the enucleated (without a nucleus) healthy zygotes. The resulting zygotes contain nuclear DNA from each of the intending parents and a donor's mtDNA. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Paṇini (4th century BCE or “6th to 5th century BCE”) was an ancient Sanskrit grammarian, and a revered scholar in ancient India. Considered the father of linguistics, Paṇini likely lived in the northwest Indian subcontinent during the Mahajanapada era. Hence statement 1 is not correct. He is said to have been born in Shalatula of ancient Gandhara, a small town at the junction of the Indus and Kabul rivers, Pakistan. Pāṇini is known for his text Ashtadhyayi, a sutra-style treatise on Sanskrit grammar,3,959 “verses” or rules on linguistics syntax and semantics “eight chapters” which is the foundational text of the Vyākaraṇa branch of the Vedanga. Ashtadhyayi is admired for its simplicity and its rigorous and consistent use of meta language Sutras are like mathematical formulae. So, a lot of information can be given using a few words. And since Panini uses sutras, the Ashtadhyayi is crisp. Panini also lays down rules to resolve conflicts between sutras. Ashtadhyayi is augmented with ancillary texts such as Sivasutras (special order of phonemes); dhatupatha (list of verbal roots); ganapatha (various sets of nouns) and linganusaasana (system for deciding the gender). Pushyamitra Sunga (185 BC TO 151 BC): Pushyamitra Shunga was the founder and first ruler of the Shunga Empire in East India. He was a follower of Hinduism. Pushyamitra was originally a Senapati "General" of the Maurya Empire. In 185 BCE he assassinated the last Mauryan Emperor, Brihadratha Maurya, during an army review, and proclaimed himself emperor. Chandragupta II, also called Vikramaditya, powerful emperor (reigned c. 380 –c. 415 ce) of northern India. He was the son of Samudra Gupta and grandson of Chandragupta I. During his reign, art, architecture, and sculpture flourished, and the cultural development of ancient India reached its climax. Chandragupta - II was known for his deep interest in art and culture and nine gems or Navratna adorned his court.

The group comprised of Kalidasa Vetala Bhatta Varahamihira Vararuchi Amarasimha Dhanvantari kshapanak Shanku Ghatakarpura Kalidasa Kalidasa was a famous Sanskrit writer and poet in the court of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya). Kalidasa was the author of three famous plays. Abhijnanasakuntalam :tells the story of King Dushyanta and Shakuntala Malavikagnimitram -tells the story love of King Agnimitra with Malavika Raghuvamsa (“Raghu Dynasty “) and Kumarasambhava Amarasimha: Amarasimha was one of the nine Gems in the court of Vikramaditya of Gupta era. He is notably known for his famous Sanskrit thesaurus Amarakosha. It is also known as Namalinganushasana.

Munda Rebellion is one of the prominent 19th century tribal rebellions in the subcontinent. Birsa Munda led this movement in the region south of Ranchi in 1899 -1900. the ulgulan, meaning 'Great Tumult', sought to establish Munda Raj and independence. The Mundas traditionally enjoyed a preferential rent rate as the khuntkattidar or the original clearer of the forest. But in course of the 19th century they had seen this khuntkatti land system being eroded by the jagirdars and thikadars coming as merchants and moneylenders. The government attempted to redress the grievances of the Mundas through the survey and settlement operations of 1902 -10.

The Chhotanagpur Tenancy Act of 1908 provided some recognition to their khuntkatti rights and banned beth begari. Chhotanagpur tribals won a degree of legal protection for their land rights.

Fort William College was established on 18 August 1800 by Lord Richard Wellesley (d. 1837), Governor General of Bengal, in order to provide instruction in the vernacular languages of India to the civil and military officials of the East India Company. It was named after King William III of England. The purposes were multi folded: fostering of Indian languages and making the British officials to be familiar with the local languages, etc . so that their administrative work would become easier as it involved interaction with the Indian natives.

Indigo, the blue dye, was extracted from plants in ancient times, some 5000 -6000 years ago (3000 -4000 BCE), both in the Old (Asia, Africa and Europe) and New (Americas) Worlds. It got its name Indigo, because it reached Europe from Indus Valley, India and later from other parts of India by the Portuguese and other European sailors. It was commercially encouraged and traded by the British, firstly by the cultivation of indigo plant and production of the dye in South Carolina, USA in mid18th century, which was then a British colony. However, this stopped after the British colonies in USA gained their freedom after American Revolutionary War (1775 - 1783). It was then that British East India Company (BEIC) started its production in Bengal and part of the current Bihar states of India and continued it until the second decade of 20th century. The Company looked for ways to expand the area under indigo cultivation in India. From the last decades of the eighteenth century, indigo cultivation in Bengal rapidly expanded. Only about 30% of indigo imported to Britain in 1788 was from India. This figure went up to 95% by 1810. Commercial agents and officials of the Company began investing in indigo production to increase their profit. Many Company officials even left their jobs to look after their indigo business. Many people from Scotland and England came to India and became planters; to grab the opportunity. The Company and banks were giving loans for indigo cultivation at that time.

Thus, indigo crop has been associated with and created quite a bit of history. Faced by high prices charged by the British traders for indigo dye, German chemists had already started their search for making synthetic indigo and Adolf Baeyer succeeded in synthesizing it in 1882. This was followed by research by other German chemists, namely, Johannes Pfleger and Karl Heumann in the first decade of 20th century. The synthetic dye was much cheaper and blew the final blow to the natural plant produced indigo dye and indigo crop became a part of history. Now most of the indigo dye used world -over is made synthetically.

Dr. Rakhmabai Bhikaji was a pioneer in the field of medicine and women’s rights in the 19th century. Her efforts to be granted the right to choose was instrumental in raising the age of consent for women in 1891. She went on to study in the London school of Medicine for Women in 1889. When she came back to India to work in a hospital in 1894, she became India’s first practicing lady doctor. Rakhmabai got married at 11 - years of age to the 19 -year old Dadaji Bhikaji. As was convention at the time, she stayed at her parents house, this was the time she spent in educating herself under the guidance of her stepfather. When Rakhmabai was still in school, her husband, Dadaji, insisted that Rakhmabai come and live with him in his house. Rakhmabai, not one to blindly follow convention, refused. Dadaji soon filed a petition in the court of law. Early in 1884, one of India’s most influential and publicized trials began. Rukhmabai asked ‘freedom’ from her nonconsensual marriage, seeking a legal divorce. Her stand gave rise to a nation -wide debate over infant and non -consensual marriage. The legal and social controversies provoked by the case revolved round notions of colonial law, marriage and conjugality, and the prospect of state intervention. For the first time, the social orthodoxy, which had so far resisted state intervention in ‘family’ and‘religion’, appealed to colonial law to discipline the disobedient wife. Behramji Malabari and Pandita Ramabai came to her defense and formed the Rakhmabai Defense Committee. The case spanned 4 years until Dadaji was “compensated” in 1888, outside of court.

The Fourth Noble Truth, the Noble Eightfold Path, gives what the Buddhist pilgrim (or practitioner) has to practice, and the path which he has to follow, to achieve Enlightenment and realize Nibbana. There is a parallel path which consists of perfecting certain qualities, which leads the pilgrim to becoming a Samma Sambuddha, a self Enlightened Universal Buddha. The qualities are called the Paramis (perfections) in the Southern traditions and the Paramitas in the Eastern and Northern traditions. The elements of the Noble Path and the Paramis are similar. The ten Paramis are: Generosity

• giving help and benefit to other living beings Morality - live an ethical life Renunciation - renounce worldly pleasures Wisdom - achieve a right understanding of life and the world Energy - persistent effort and not being discouraged by failures Patience - patiently accept life’s ups and downs Truthfulness
• honesty and truthfulness in all things Determination - unwavering determination to progress on the path Loving -kindness
• show benevolence and compassion to all things Equanimity
• develop a perfect mental equilibrium. The ten Paramitas of the Eastern and Northern traditions are; Generosity Morality Patience Energy Meditation Wisdom Skillful means Resolution Power Knowledge Despite slight differences in the wording, the two sets of qualities are similar.

Gupta Economy: The agricultural crops constituted the main resources which the society produced and the major part of the revenue of the state came from the agriculture. Various types of land are mentioned in the inscriptions; land under cultivation was usually called Kshetra, Khila was the uncultivable land, Aprahata was the jungle or forest land, Gopata Sarah was the pasture land and Vasti was the habitable land. Different land measures were known in different regions such as Nivartana, Kulyavapa and Dronavapa. In the inscriptions of Bengal terms like Kulyavapa and Dronavapa are used. It is not possible to classify the regions precisely according to the crops grown, but all the major categories of crops – cereals like barley, wheat and paddy, different varieties of pulses, grams and vegetables as well as cash crops like cotton and sugarcane – were known long before the Gupta period and continued to be cultivated.

Gopal Baba Walangkar, also known as Gopal Krishna, (ca. 1840-1900) is an early example of an activist working to release the untouchable people of India from their historic socio-economic oppression, and is generally considered to be the pioneer of that movement. He developed a racial theory to explain the oppression and also published the first journal targeted at the untouchable people. Walangkar claimed that "high-caste people from the south were 'Australian–Semitic non-Aryans' and African negroes, that Chitpavan Brahmans were 'Barbary Jews', and that the high-caste Marathas' forebears were 'Turks'". In 1888, Walangkar began publishing the monthly journal titled Vital-Vidhvansak (Destroyer of Brahmanical or Ceremonial Pollution), which was the first to have the untouchable people as its target audience.

5 March 1931, the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed by Gandhiji on behalf of the Congress and by Lord Irwin on behalf of the Government. The pact placed the Congress on an equal footing with the Government. The terms of the agreement included immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence; remission of all fines not yet collected; return of all lands not yet sold to third parties; lenient treatment to those government servants who had resigned; right to make salt in coastal villages for personal consumption (not for sale); right to peaceful and non - aggressive picketing. withdrawal of emergency ordinances. The viceroy, however, turned down two of Gandhi's demands: (i) public inquiry into police excesses, and (ii) commutation of Bhagat Singh and his comrades' death sentence to life sentence. Gandhi on behalf of the Congress agreed: (i) to suspend the civil disobedience movement. (ii) to participate in the next Round Table Conference.

Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar (1869 - 1912) a close associate of Sri Aurobindo. A Marathi Brahmin who had settled in Bengal, Sakharam was born in Deoghar. He published a book entitled Desher Katha describing in exhaustive detail the British commercial and industrial exploitation of India. This book had an immense repercussion in Bengal, captured the mind of young Bengal and assisted more than anything else in the preparation of the Swadeshi movement. Published first in June 1904, Desher Katha sold ten thousand copies in four editions within the year. The fifth edition came out in 1905. The government of Bengal banned the book in 1910 and confiscated all the copies. Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar popularized the ideas of Naoroji and Ranade and promoted swadeshi in a popular idiom. His text, titled Desher Katha (Story of the Nation/Country), written in 1904, warned against the colonial state’s ‘hypnotic conquest of the mind'. By the time Desher Katha was banned by the colonial state in 1910, it had sold over 15,000 copies, inspired swadeshi street plays and folk songs, and had become a mandatory text for an entire generation of swadeshi activists. It is remarkable that in spite of this general growth of ‘national’ and regional awakening and ‘national’ consciousness, there was no word in Bengali for ‘nation’, a fact noted by Rabindranath. Tagore would become an outspoken critique of nationalism, arguing that ‘India had never had a real sense of nationalism’ and it would do India ‘no good to compete with Western civilization in its own field’.

Earlier, he had described nationalism as a bhougalik apadevata, a geographical demon, towards the exorcism of which he had dedicated his Visva -Bharati. Deuskar used desh to mean nation. The overlap of place of origin and nation, as well as jati (literally birth, family or caste) and nationality inflected understandings of the nation/country in distinct ways. Moreover, the constant overlap and conflation of Bengal and India, and Bengalis and Indians in the use of desh and jati, added further twists to notions of nationalism. It is worth quoting part of an article “Amader Desher Katha” [About our Country], that appeared in the children’s periodical Prakriti [Nature] in 1907: Though we constantly reiterate the phrase ‘our country’ do we have any exact idea of the actual constituents of that territory? . . What are the boundaries of our land? . . . Steering clear of political debates, let us see what Mother Nature has to say in this regard . . . her fingers point to a huge expanse - far greater than Bengal - as our nation. Following her directions we recognize the glorious Bharatbarsha as our majestic land. With walls of the highest mountains and the deepest caverns of the seas, Nature has carved out the contours of Bharat and made it distinct from the rest of the world . . . this great expanse called Bharatbarsha is our nation.        

In India, instruments of credit have been in use since time immemorial and are popularly known as Hundies. The movement of goods during Medieval period was facilitated by the growth of a financial system which permitted easy transfer of money from one part of the country to another. This was done through the use of Hundis. The Hundis was a letter of credit payable after a period of time at a discount.

The Gurjara Pratihara dynasty was founded by Nagabhatta I in the region of Malwa in the 8th century AD. He belonged to a Rajput clan. Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty ruled much of Northern India from the mid-8th to the 11th century. The Pratiharas, derived their name from the Sanskrit meaning doorkeeper, are seen as a tribal group or a clan of the Gurjaras. The greatest ruler of the Pratihara dynasty was Mihir Bhoja (836–885 CE). He recovered Kannauj (Kanyakubja) by 836 A.D, and it remained the capital of the Pratiharas for almost a century. The Pallavas were a powerful ancient dynasty that ruled a huge part of Southern India, including present day Tamil Nadu, between the 6th and 9th centuries AD, with Kanchipuram as their capital. The Pallavas reached their zenith during the reign of Mahendravarman I (c. 600–630), a contemporary of Harsha and Pulakeshin II. Mahendravarman I He was a Pallava King who succeeded Simhavishnu and reigned for c. 600–630. He was a great patron of art and architecture and is known for introducing a new style to Dravidian architecture, which is sometimes referred to as “Mahendra style.” He built temples at Panamalai, Mandagapattu and Kanchipuram. The inscription at Mandagapattu mentions Mahendravarman I with numerous titles such as: Vichitrachitta (curious -minded) Chitrakarapuli (tiger among artists) Chaityakari (temple builder). The Cholas became prominent in the ninth century and established an empire comprising the major portion of South India. Their capital was Tanjore. The Chola ruler Parantaka succeeded his father Aditya I(Aditya I or Aditya Chola, the son of Vijayalaya Chola, is the second ruler of the Medieval Cholas) on the throne in 907 and ruled for forty - eight years. Soon after his accession, as early as 910, he invaded the Pandyan country and assumed the title Maduraikonda (‘ Capturer of Madura’). The Pala Empire was an imperial power during the post-classical period (8th and 9th century AD) which originated in the Bengal region. The empire was founded with the election of Gopala as the emperor of Gauda in 750 CE .

Hence correct sequence is 2 - 4 - 1 -3.

India was a major player in the world export market for textiles in the early 18th century, but by the middle of the 19th century it had lost all of its export market and much of its domestic market. At the beginning of Industrial revolution cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups began worrying about imports from other countries. They pressurised the government to impose import duties on cotton textiles so that Manchester goods could sell in Britain without facing any competition from outside. At the same time industrialists persuaded the East India Company to sell British manufactures in Indian markets as well. Exports of British cotton goods increased dramatically in the early nineteenth century. Cotton weavers in India thus faced two problems at the same time: their export market collapsed, and the local market shrank, being glutted with Manchester imports. Produced by machines at lower costs, the imported cotton goods were so cheap that weavers could not easily compete with them. By the 1850s, reports from most weaving regions of India narrated stories of decline and desolation. Hence option (a) is correct answer.

The division of the Buddhist community in India in the first three centuries following the death of the Buddha in c. 483 BC. The first division in the Buddhist community occurred as a result of the second council, said to have been held 100 years after the Buddha’s death, at Vaisali (Bihar state) this Council was called to condemn certain practices of some monks which were contrary to the Vinaya or Monk’s Code of conduct., when the Acariyavadins (followers of the traditional teaching) split away from the Sthaviravadins (followers of the Way of the Elders) and formed their own school, known as the Mahasanghikas.

These Sthaviravadins followed a realist line, stating that all phenomena exist and are unstable compounds of elements. They taught that it is necessary for all humans to strive for Arahantship or release from the constant round of rebirth (Samsara). They taught that Buddhas are men - pure and simple, rejecting any notion of their being transcendental. The other group, which were in the majority, were known as the Mahasanghikas. Like the Sthaviravadins, they accepted the fundamental doctrines as taught by the Buddha, such as: the Four Noble Truths, the Noble Eightfold Path etc but they differed in believing that Buddhas are supramundane and transcendental.

They also believed that the original nature of the mind is pure and that it is contaminated when it is stained by passions and defilements. It was from the Mahasanghikas that the Mahayana was to evolve. Hence statement 1 is not correct. They differed or came to differ significantly from the Sthaviravada in how they understood the nature of the Buddha, and they are the first to attribute divinity to him and represent him in anthropomorphic form in statuary, setting a precedent which has continued to the present day. Hence statement 3 is correct. Further subdivisions of the Mahasanghikas over the next seven centuries included sect of Lokottarvadin whose philosophy was based on the concept of Lokottara Buddha or Supernatural Buddha., the Ekavyavaharikas, and the Kaukkutikas. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Aurang – A Persian term for a warehouse –a place where goods are collected before being sold; also refers to a workshop. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched Banian: In the 18th and 19th centuries, European merchants opened and deepened trade routes throughout Asia, Africa, and Latin America. However, in these markets they faced considerable challenges due to linguistic and cultural barriers. This led to difficulties in integrating into indigenous commercial and political systems, which restricted their operations. The use of intermediaries with expertise of the local markets and languages rapidly proliferated. In South -East Asia, this was known as the ‘comprador’ system, whilst in the Anglo -Indian trade individuals carrying out these functions were known as ‘banians’. These intermediaries fulfilled various internal and external roles for trading companies including, managing treasury functions, securing credit, and acting as brokers in the local markets. A contemporary described the banian as an individual, “By whom the English gentlemen in general conduct all their business. He is interpreter, head book -keeper, head secretary, head broker, the supplier of cash and cash -keeper, and in general also secret -keeper. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

Mirasidars: Under the ryotwari settlement system, the government recognized mirasidars as the sole proprietors of land, dismissing tenants' rights completely. Only in villages where no mirasidar system existed were those villagers holding permanent occupancy rights recognized as landholders responsible for the payment of land revenue. According to Elphinstone (Governor of Bombay), the two important features of the Maratha government were: 1. the existence of village communities as units of local administration 2. the existence of mirasi tenure Mirasdars were hereditary peasant proprietors who cultivated their own fields and paid land tax at fixed rates to the state. The Mirasdar belonged to the village and could not be dispossessed of it so long as he continued to pay the rent. He could sell and transfer his fields and had the right to sit in the village council. All the land which did not belong to the Mirasdar belonged to government or those to whom government assigned it. His lands were measured out and classified, and the standard demand on them fixed. If, however, the rains failed, if the village suffered from war or pestilence or if a family calamity intervened, he could seek remission.

Article 85(1) of the Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but sixmonths shall not intervene between its last sitting in one Session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next Session. In other words, the Parliament should meet at least twice a year. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct. There is no minimum number of days that Parliament is required to meet in a year. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Constitution does not mention eligibility as a condition to be made a minister in a State. Qualifications a person should possess to become eligible for appointment as a minister are:

• He should be a citizen of India.
• He should be above 25 years of age
• He should not hold any office of profit under the government of India
• If he is not a member of Parliament, then he should be elected to the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha within six months after his appointment as a minister.

Section 8 in The Representation of the People Act, 1951: A person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years [other than any offence referred to in sub-section (1) or sub-section (2)] shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release.

DPSPs, contained in Part IV (Article 36 –51) of the Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down there in are considered in the governance of the country, making it the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws to establish a just society. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct and statement 1 is not correct

A reserve tranche is a portion of the required quota of currency each member country must provide to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be utilized for its own purposes without a service fee or economic reform conditions. The IMF is funded through its members and their quota contributions. The reserve tranche is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access at any time without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee. The reserve tranches that countries hold with the IMF are considered their facilities of first resort, meaning they will tap into the reserve tranche at a short notice before seeking a formal credit tranche. The reserve tranche represents the member’s unconditional drawing right on the IMF, created by the foreign exchange portion of the quota subscription, plus increase (decrease) through the IMF’s sale (repurchase) of the member’s currency to meet the demand for use of IMF resources by other members in need of balance of payments financing.

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution serves as a brief introductory statement of the Constitution that sets out the guiding purpose, principles, and philosophy of the Indian Constitution. It is the thinking and soul of Constitution makers and the Constituent Assembly. The preamble is based on the Objectives which were drafted and moved in the Constituent Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946. The Supreme Court of India originally stated in the Berubari Case (1960) presidential reference that the preamble is not an integral part of the Indian constitution, and therefore it is not enforceable in a court of law.

However, the same court, in the 1973 Kesavananda case, overruled earlier decisions and recognized that the preamble may be used to interpret ambiguous areas of the constitution where differing interpretations present themselves. The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda case reiterated that the objectives given in the Preamble form a part of the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution. In the 1995 case of Union Government vs LIC of India, the Supreme Court once again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. The Preamble is not a legally binding document. No law can be struck down if it is found to violate the Preamble only. But its importance lies in the following. It has been held in many decisions of the Supreme Court that when a constitutional provision is interpreted, the cardinal rule is to look to the Preamble as the guiding star and the Directive Principles of State policy as the book of interpretation. For example, the keyword contained in the Preamble e.g. 'secular' is substantiated under Part III of the Indian Constitution, which is a basic feature as per the judgements of the Supreme Court. If a law is made, it is taken care of that the 'secular' character of the polity is not violated. Even though 'secular' character of the polity is mentioned in the Preamble, such a law would be considered violative of the (Right to Freedom of Religion) Fundamental Rights and not the Preamble. Thus Preamble has no legal effect independent of the Fundamental Rights in this case. The Preamble may not be an essential part of the ordinary statute, nor it has any legal effect independent of other parts, but it is an essential part of Constitutional Law. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

While the heads of government and their ministers, saddled with the overall responsibility of government policy, are together known as the political executive having a shorter term of office(In India, it is generally for 5 years); those responsible for the day to day administration are called the permanent executive, i.e. the Bureaucracy. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

The similarity and dissimilarity between Gandhism and Marxism are as under: (1) Conception of Ideal State: There is a great similarity between Mahatma Gandhi and Kart Marx. However, while the final aim of both them it the establishments of a stateless and classless society, their means for achieving this aim are different. Mahatma Gandhi wanted to achieve this end through non-violent means but Marx wanted to achieve it through violent means. (2) Capitalism: Though both Mahatma Gandhi and Karl Marx were opposed to capitalism and exploitation, yet they propagated different means to remove capitalism not by violent means but through economic decentralization, by encouraging cottage industries, and by making the capitalist trustees. (3) Spiritualism vs. Materialism: Mahatma Gandhi was decisively a spiritualist. On every aspect of his life there was a deep impact of religion. He was saint and a staunch believer in God. He did not attach any importance to materialism and luxuries of life. He said that man should have minimum needs.

He did not attach any importance to politics devoid of religion. Karl Marx considered religion as opium for the workers, because in his view religion made man a fatalist and it did not allow discontentment to arise in the workers against capitalism. The result was that they lacked organisation and enthusiasm needed for a revolution. (4) Ends and Means: Mahatma Gandhi was not in favour of using violent means for achieving a good end. Therefore, he adopted non -violent means for the achievement of India’s freedom and criticised revolutionaries who wanted to adopt all types of means, including the violent ones, for the achievement of India’s freedom. Marxists do not believe in non -violence. They believe that capitalism cannot be abolished trough parliamentary means and socialist revolution is not possible without the use of violence. (5) Class War: Marxists have a deep faith in class struggle. Mahatma Gandhi said that class - struggle brought ruin to the country and it made the production of goods fall considerably. All propertied persons were not bad.

There was an urgent need to change their minds. (6) Investment of Capital: With regard to the investment of capital the views of Marx and Gandhiji are different. Marxists say that there should be socialisation of the means of production. First of all they want to transfer to it the control of all the industries. Mahatma Gandhi allows the investment of private capital but not exploitation through it. He wants to make the capitalists trustees of the national wealth. In case the capitalists do not agree to become the trustees, he is ready to give the power to the state to control the industries of the capitalists by using minimum force. He is also not in favour of snatching land from the landlords by force. He is ready to accept their private ownership on land, while Marx is not ready to allow private ownership on land. Gandhi is also in favour of co - operative farming, while the Marxists are in favour of collective farming, in which there is a great control of the state. (7) Democracy vs. Dictatorship: Gandhiji had a firm faith in democracy, but he considered the Western democracy as incomplete. He said that there should be decentralisation of power. The Panchayats in the village should be given more powers and the villages should be given complete autonomy. He was the supporter of welfare state and hated dictatorship or autocracy. The Marxists believe in the Dictatorship of the proletariat. They want to give maximum powers to the workers. 

Statement 1 is not correct: In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court laid down a new doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ (or ‘basic features’) of the Constitution. It ruled that the constituent power of Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. From the various judgements, features like Independent Judiciary, Secularism, Rule of law, Free and fair elections, The principle of Separation of Powers, Parliamentary system, The "essence" of other Fundamental Rights in Part III, The Sovereign, Democratic, Republican structure etc. emerged as the part of Basic Structure. Statement 2 is correct: Judiciary is entrusted with the task of protecting rights of individuals. The Constitution provides two ways in which the Supreme Court can remedy the violation of rights.

± First it can restore fundamental rights by issuing writs of Habeas Corpus; mandamus etc. (article 32). The High Courts also have the power to issue such writs (article 226). ± Secondly, the Supreme Court can declare the concerned law as unconstitutional and therefore non -operational (article 13). Together these two provisions of the Constitution establish the Supreme Court as the protector of fundamental rights of the citizen on the one hand and interpreter of Constitution on the other. The second of the two ways mentioned above involves judicial review. The term judicial review is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution. However, the fact that India has a written constitution and the Supreme Court can strike down a law that goes against fundamental rights, implicitly gives the Supreme Court the power of judicial review

A welfare state is a concept of government where the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social well -being of its citizens. It is based on the principles of equality of opportunity, equitable distribution of wealth, and public responsibility for those unable to avail themselves of the minimal provisions for a good life. The Directive Principles of State Policy embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’. A fundamental feature of the welfare state is social insurance, a provision common to most advanced industrialized countries (National Social Assistance Programme). The welfare state also usually includes public provision of basic education, health services, and housing etc. Under this system, the welfare of its citizens is the responsibility of the state. India is a welfare state. The fact that the Preamble of the Constitution itself envisages India to be a ‘socialist’ state bears enough evidence for this.

Alma Ata Declaration: The Declaration of Alma-Ata was adopted at the International Conference on Primary Health Care, Almaty, Kazakhstan, 6–12 September 1978. It expressed the need for urgent action by all governments, all health and development workers, and the world community to protect and promote the health of all people. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. Hague Convention: The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction or Hague Abduction Convention is a multilateral treaty developed by the Hague Conference on Private International Law that provides an expeditious method to return a child internationally abducted by a parent from one member country to another. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched. The Talanoa Dialogue is a process designed to help countries implement and enhance their Nationally Determined Contributions by 2020. The Dialogue was mandated by the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention for Climate Change to take stock of the collective global efforts to reduce the emissions of greenhouse gases, in line with the goals of the Paris Agreement. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

As per the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, following are entitled to free legal services: A member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe; A victim of trafficking in human beings or begar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution; A woman is entitled for free legal aid irrespective of her income or financial status; Child is eligible for free legal aid till the age of majority i.e. 18 years; A mentally ill or otherwise differently abled person; A person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster; or An industrial workman; or a person in receipt of annual income less than the amount mentioned in the following schedule (or any other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Government), if the case is before a Court other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs 5 Lakh, if the case is before the Supreme Court. The Income Ceiling Limit prescribed u/S 12(h) of the Act for availing free legal services in different States. Senior Citizen - Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard. Hence option 4 is not correct. o Low income (Annual income less than Rs. 1,00,000 o Transgender (Annual income less than Rs. 2 Lac) in Delhi

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the UN General Assembly in 1948. This declaration represents the first international expression of human rights to which all human beings are entitled. It is described as the “International Magna Carta”. The Constitution of India has a rich content of human rights. The Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948). The four ideals of the Preamble are aimed at the promotion of human rights. They are as under: Justice in social, economic and political spheres Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship Equality of status and opportunity Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual The Fundamental Rights under Part -III of the Constitution contain an elaborate list of civil and political rights divided into six categories: Right to equality Right to freedom Right against exploitation Right to freedom of religion Cultural and educational right Right to constitutional remedies The Directive Principles of State Policy in Part -IV of the Constitution comprise economic, social and cultural rights. Article 26 of The Universal Declaration of Human Rights: Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Elementary education shall be compulsory. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available and higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of merit. Education shall be directed to the full development of the human personality and to the strengthening of respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms. It shall promote understanding, tolerance and friendship among all nations, racial or religious groups, and shall further the activities of the United Nations for the maintenance of peace. Parents have a prior right to choose the kind of education that shall be given to their children. All this is reflected in the Fundamental Duty Article 51 -A(k) "Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years." Hence all the options are correct.

Constitutionalism has a variety of meanings. Most generally, it is "a complex of ideas, attitudes, and patterns of behavior elaborating the principle that the authority of government derives from and is limited by a body of fundamental law".

Constitutionalism’ means limited government or limitation on government. It is the antithesis of arbitrary powers. Constitutionalism recognizes the need for a government with powers but at the same time insists that limitation be placed on those powers. The antithesis of constitutionalism is despotism. A government that goes beyond its limits loses its authority and legitimacy. Constitutionalism could be seen as constituting the following elements: government according to the constitution; separation of power; sovereignty of the people and democratic government; constitutional review; independent judiciary; limited government subject to a bill of individual rights; controlling the police; civilian control of the military; and no state power, or very limited and strictly circumscribed state power, to suspend the operation of some parts of, or the entire, constitution.

Directive Principles of State Policy can be classified into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal–intellectual.

Socialistic Principles: These principles reflect the ideology of socialism. They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state. Gandhian Principles: These principles are based on Gandhian ideology. They represent the programme of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement. In order to fulfil the dreams of Gandhi, some of his ideas were included as Directive Principles.

Liberal–Intellectual Principles: The principles included in this category represent the ideology of liberalism. They direct the state: To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country (Article 44). To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years (Article 45). To organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines (Article 48). To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A). To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance (Article 49). To separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State (Article 50). To promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration (Article 51).

Right to Equality (Article 14 -18) protects the citizens against any discrimination by the State on the basis of religion, caste, race, sex, or place of birth. Article 14 says that all citizens enjoy equal privileges and opportunities. Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Article 16 says that no citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or office under the State on grounds of only religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or residence. Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’ and forbids its practise in any form. Article 18 abolish all titles national or foreign which create artificial distinctions in social status amongst the people.

Statement 1 is correct: Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme is for development works and creation of durable community assets. The emphasis is on creation of durable community assets based on locally felt needs in the arenas of roads, electricity, drinking water, health and education etc. The recommendations of the works are made by the Members of Parliament for the betterment of the community. These works are executed by District Authorities in accordance with the respective State Government’s financial, technical and administrative rules. The scheme was announced in 1993. Initially the MPLADS was under the control of the Ministry of Rural Development. The MPLAD Scheme was transferred to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation in October 1994. The annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crores. Lok Sabha Members can recommend works within their Constituencies. Elected Members of Rajya Sabha can recommend works within the State of Election Nominated Members of both the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha can recommend works anywhere in the country. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Statement 2 is correct: M.Ps are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15 per cent of the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas inhabited by S.T. population. In other words, out of an amount of Rs.5 crores, a M.P. shall recommend for areas inhabited by S.C. population, Rs.75 lacs and Rs.37.5 lacs for areas inhabited by S.T. population. In case there is insufficient tribal population in the area of Lok Sabha Member, they may recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in tribal areas outside of their constituency but within their State of election. In case a State does not have S.T. inhabited areas, this amount may be utilized in S.C. inhabited areas and vice -versa. It shall be the responsibility of the district authority to enforce the provision of the guideline. In order to facilitate implementation of this guideline, it will be responsibility of the district authority keeping in view the extant provisions of State and Central Government’s to declare areas eligible for utilization for funds meant for the benefit of SC & ST population. Statement 3 is not correct: An important aspect of the MPLAD Scheme is that funds released under this scheme are non - lapsable i.e. if the money is not utilised, it gets carried to the next year. Statement 4 is correct: The District Authority would be responsible for overall coordination and supervision of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year.

The powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that of the Lok Sabha in the following matters: Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills. Introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India. Election and impeachment of the president. Election of the Vice-President. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot. The Electoral College to elect a person to the office of the Vice -President consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament. However, Rajya Sabha alone can initiate the removal of the vice - president. He is removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority. Making recommendation to the President for the removal of Chief Justice and judges of Supreme Court and high courts, chief election commissioner and comptroller and auditor general. Approval of ordinances issued by the President. Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President. Selection of ministers including the Prime Minister. Under the Constitution, the ministers including the Prime Minister can be members of either House. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the Lok Sabha. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like Finance Commission, Union Public Service Commission, comptroller and auditor general, etc. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Service Commission.

Metadata or meta base is a set of data that describes and gives information about other data. “Authentication records are not to be kept beyond a period of six months, as stipulated in Regulation 27(1) of the Authentication Regulations. As per SC Judgement, retaining authentication data of citizens who have enrolled for Aadhaar beyond six months was “impermissible. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Supreme Court has struck down the Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act which allowed sharing of data with private entities.The judgement means that private bodies like telecom companies, e - commerce firms cannot ask for biometriric and other data from consumers for their services. Hence statement 2 is correct. Insurance regulator IRDAI has advised insurers not to mandatorily seek Aadhaar and PAN/Form 60 from customers, existing or new, for KYC (Know Your Customer) purpose.

It, however, allowed insurers to accept Aadhaar card as one of the documents for establishing identity, address of the customer subject to certain conditions that presumably are being stipulated to guard against misuse of the information. The insurers can accept Aadhaar as one of the documents for KYC, only when the same is offered voluntarily by the proposer/policy-holder. Hence statement 3 is not correct. As per section 7 of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016, any individual who is desirous of availing any subsidy, benefit or service for which the expenditure is incurred from the Consolidated Fund of India, shall require to furnish proof of possession of Aadhaar number or undergo Aadhaar based authentication. In case the individual does not have Aadhaar, he/she shall make an application for enrolment and the individual shall be offered alternate and viable means of identification for delivery of the subsidy, benefit or service. Hence statement 4 is correct