UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper I (D Series) – Complete Answer Key & Analysis

Explore the complete UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper 1 (D Series) with all 100 questions, official answer key, and detailed exam analysis. Understand subject-wise trends, difficulty level, and key takeaways to prepare effectively for UPSC Mains 2026.

UPSC Prelims 2026 - GS Paper 1 - Analysis

Table of Contents

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducted the Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2026 on 24 May 2026 across India. As always, Paper I (General Studies) tested aspirants on a wide range of topics including history, polity, geography, environment, economy, science & technology, and current affairs.

We are presenting here the official D Series question paper with complete answer key and explanations to help aspirants evaluate their performance and prepare for the upcoming Mains examination.

📌 Key Highlights of UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper I

Balanced Coverage: The paper maintained UPSC’s tradition of balanced distribution across static subjects and current affairs.
Current Affairs Weightage: Questions on AI Impact Summit 2026, Mission Sudarshan Chakra, and National Critical Mineral Mission reflected UPSC’s focus on contemporary developments.
Science & Tech Emphasis: Topics like quantum computing, genome projects, drone swarms, stealth technology, and green hydrogen featured prominently.
Environment & Climate: Multiple questions on biodiversity, climate change missions, REEs, and adaptation funds highlighted UPSC’s emphasis on sustainability.
Polity & Governance: Questions on Article 13, Zero FIR under BNSS 2023, SC/ST provisions, and parliamentary committees tested constitutional clarity.

📊 Answer Key (D Series)

We have compiled the complete answer key (Q1–Q100) in a tabular format for quick reference.

Q.No	Answer	Q.No	Answer	Q.No	Answer	Q.No	Answer
1	D	26	B	51	C	76	C
2	A	27	C	52	A	77	A
3	C	28	B	53	C	78	B
4	B	29	B	54	C	79	D
5	B	30	C	55	D	80	B
6	B	31	B	56	A	81	B
7	A	32	B	57	C	82	A
8	D	33	D	58	B	83	C
9	D	34	D	59	B	84	D
10	B	35	C	60	A	85	A
11	D	36	C	61	C	86	D
12	A	37	A	62	C	87	D
13	C	38	D	63	D	88	A
14	B	39	C	64	A	89	— (Dropped)
15	B	40	B	65	A	90	D
16	A	41	C	66	C	91	A
17	D	42	B	67	B	92	B
18	A	43	B	68	C	93	A
19	C	44	C	69	B	94	C
20	C	45	C	70	B	95	A
21	A	46	C	71	C	96	B
22	B	47	A	72	B	97	C
23	B	48	C	73	B	98	D
24	B	49	A	74	C	99	B
25	B	50	A	75	B	100	C

📖 UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper I (D Series) – Full Question Paper

Question 1:

Consider the following assertion :

In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.

Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion ?

The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3

Official Answer: (D) 3

Explanation: The provisional key marks option 3 (dolphin species) as correct. UPSC emphasizes ecological evidence rather than textual/geological sources here.

Question 2:

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography ?

(a) The meditation of the Buddha

(b) The Buddha’s First Sermon

(d) The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana

Official Answer: (A) The meditation of the Buddha

Explanation: The empty seat symbolizes Buddha’s meditation, not his sermon or Mahaparinibbana.

Question 3:

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched ?

Vitasta : Chenab
Asikni : Jhelum
Parushni : Ravi
Yavyavati : Beas

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(d) 4 only

Official Answer: (C) 3 only

Explanation: Only Parushni = Ravi is correct. Vitasta and Asikni were mismatched, Yavyavati not accepted here.

Question 4:

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct ?

It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Amaravati was in Krishna valley and influenced South Indian art abroad. It was not second only to Sanchi in size.

Question 5:

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ?

Senguttuvan : Chera
Udiyanjeral : Chola
Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation: Udiyanjeral was Chera, not Chola. Senguttuvan and Nedunjeliyan are correctly matched.

Question 6:

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939 ?

Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2 and 4 only

Official Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Bose lacked Gandhi’s support, Congress Left was fragmented, and Royists/socialists preferred unity.Communists were not a decisive factor in 1939.

Question 7:

Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856 :

The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

Official Answer: (A) 2 only

Explanation: The official key accepts only statement 2 (Summary Revenue Settlement assuming taluqdars were outsiders).

Question 8:

Consider the following assertion :

The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion ?

Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: All three statements are correct — reforms entrenched separate electorates, countered nationalism, and attracted deprived classes.

Question 9:

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the :

(a) Agra Gharana

(b) Gwalior Gharana

(d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Official Answer: (D) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Explanation: Correct — Mansur was a stalwart of Jaipur-Atrauli gharana.

Question 10:

In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni (‘mistress of the field’) originate ?

(a) Rigveda

(b) Atharvaveda

(d) Arthashastra

Official Answer: (B) Atharvaveda

Explanation: The official key marks Atharvaveda, not Ashtadhyayi, as the source of this term.

Question 11:

Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music ?

(a) Nat Bhairavi

(b) Kamavardhini

(d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Official Answer: (D) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Explanation: Bilawal corresponds to the major scale; in Carnatic, this is Dheera Shankarabharanam.

Question 12:

The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons ?

(a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness

(b) Providing support to Indian importers

(d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Official Answer: (A) Aiding remittances & creditworthiness

Explanation: Fixed to ensure smooth remittances to Britain and maintain India’s financial credibility.

Question 13:

Consider the following statements :

Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika.
The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following ?

Emergence of urban life
Transition to money economy

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Official Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Pali texts mention coins, corroborated by punch-marked silver coins → emergence of urban life & money economy.

Question 14:

Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara ?

Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Official Answer: (B) 2 and 3

Explanation: Official key accepts Huchimalligudi (Aihole) and Dashavatara (Deogarh).

Question 15:

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included ?

(a) Deva (gods)

(b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

(d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Official Answer: (B) Yaksha

Explanation: Jainism recognizes Deva, Manushya, Tiryancha, Naraki. Yakshas are attendants, not a main category.

Question 16:

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents :

(a) A joyous folk dance

(b) Buddha in a meditative pose

(d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Official Answer: (A) A joyous folk dance

Explanation: Depicts secular folk dance themes, not religious figures.

Question 17:

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India :

The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 – 596).
In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Found in Mankani plates (AD 595–96), generalized by 9th century, spread to SE Asia inscriptions.

Question 18:

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns :

I.There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.

II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.

III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ?

Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Spindle-whorls = home spinning; weights/scales = scientific knowledge. Spacious houses = private property, not common.

Question 19:

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct ?

(a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.

(b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.

(c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

(d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Official Answer: (C) Bardoli = land revenue protest; Eka = rent protest

Explanation: Bardoli (1928) against revenue hikes; Eka (1921–22) against excessive rents.

Question 20:

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period :

Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.
Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements ?

There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle).
There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Rigveda mentions pulley wheels & oxen use. Implements like sickle/axe are agricultural but not irrigation-specific.

Question 21:

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries ?

(a) Ecuador

(b) Peru

(d) Colombia

Official Answer: (A) Ecuador

Explanation: Tungurahua is an active stratovolcano in Ecuador’s Andes, declared a UNESCO Global Geopark in 2025.

Question 22:

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (B) 1 and 2

Explanation: Declared a Tiger Reserve in 2025; Sakhya Sagar inside it is a Ramsar Site. Lies entirely in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 23:

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (B) 1 and 2

Explanation: Humid tropical coastal climate, rainfall from both SW and NE monsoons. Peak rainfall is June–Sept, not Dec–May.

Question 24:

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India ?

Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (B) 1 and 2

Explanation: Shows western coast submergence and residual hills. Deep V-shaped valleys are Himalayan, not Peninsular.

Question 25:

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India :

I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.

II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.

III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?

Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (B) 1 and 2

Explanation: Statement II validates I; Statement III extends I. No contradiction.

Question 26:

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :

It is an epiphytic orchid.
The species is endemic to North-east India.
It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (B) 1 and 3

Explanation: Epiphytic orchid; state flower of Assam & Arunachal Pradesh. Not endemic only to NE India.

Question 27:

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct ?

They acted as army fortresses.
They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Official Answer: (C) 3 only

Explanation: Moidams are burial mounds of Ahom royalty/nobility in Assam.

Question 28:

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and “Blue Transformation”.

Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct ?

(a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean

(b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

(d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Official Answer: (B) Better production, better nutrition, better environment, better life

Explanation: FAO’s framework emphasizes sustainable production, nutrition, environment, and life.

Question 29:

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct ?

It is the largest desert lake in the world.
The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Largest desert lake, located in Kenya. UNESCO World Heritage Site, nicknamed Jade Sea.

Question 30:

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India ?

(a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project

(b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas

(d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Official Answer: (C) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

Explanation: Meghalaya’s Khasi Hills project was India’s first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ initiative.

Question 31:

Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate change :

I. India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.

II.India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.

III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?

Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (B) 1 and 2

Explanation: LT-LEDS is long-term; BUR-4 shows emission reduction supporting it. Statement III contradicts the long-term approach.

Question 32:

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (B) 1 and 2

Explanation: Endangered apes in NE India, specialized brachiation. They are not gorilla-like.

Question 33:

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience ?

Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (D) 3 only

Explanation: Mangroves act as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Question 34:

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy ?

By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.
By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (D) 3 only

Explanation: Deep draft reduces reliance on foreign trans-shipment hubs, repositioning India in maritime trade.

Question 35:

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information :

It has an antecedent drainage system.
It flows through three countries.
It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following :

(a) Brahmaputra

(b) Indus

(d) Teesta

Official Answer: (C) Sutlej

Explanation: Official key marks Sutlej. It originates in Tibet, flows through China, India, Pakistan.

Question 36:

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct ?

Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (C) 2 and 3

Explanation: UP shares boundaries with 9 states (correct). Rajasthan does not have longest international border; Sikkim borders more than one state.

Question 37:

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct ?

It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation: Arrival due to local conservation efforts. Not permanent residents, nor guided by tracking tech.

Question 38:

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) ?

Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (C) 2 and 3

Explanation: Official key accepts rice cultivation in irrigated regions and Integrated Farming Systems.

Question 39:

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry ?

It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Official Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation: Confirms Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards.

Question 40:

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean ?

Bahrain
Syria
Qatar
Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Official Answer: (C) 2 and 3

Explanation: Syria and Qatar listed in official key. Though geographically Bahrain & Qatar cross, UPSC key marks 2 and 3.

Question 41:

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (INTERPOL Notice)

Silver Notice
Blue Notice
Black Notice
Green Notice

List II (Description)

To seek information on unidentified bodies
To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation
To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety
To identify and trace criminal assets

Code:

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 1 2 3

Official Answer: (C) 4 2 1 3

Explanation: Silver → trace criminal assets; Blue → collect info; Black → unidentified bodies; Green → warning about criminal activities.

Question 42:

Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct ?

Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Botanical Survey of India leads Ecosystem Survey; IIFM Bhopal leads Capacity Development. Central Zoo Authority is not correct.

Question 43:

The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit ?

Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(d) 1 only

Official Answer: (C) 3 and 4

Explanation: MoUs on Ayurveda and Hockey signed. Indo-Pacific dialogue and Honorary Consul in Lucknow were not outcomes.

Question 44:

Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct ?

It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
It is India’s first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Official Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Third chip under DIR-V; India’s first homegrown 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Question 45:

The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct ?

The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.
It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Official Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: IS 19445:2025 introduced; improves interoperability. No Russian collaboration.

Question 46:

‘X’, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify ‘X’ :

(a) Michel H. Devoret

(b) Richard Robson

(d) Joel Mokyr

Official Answer: (C) John Clarke

Explanation: UK-born physicist, professor in US, Nobel laureate 2025.

Question 47:

Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct ?

The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
There is a limitation on the number of ‘Wild Cards’ a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (C) 1 only

Explanation: Official key accepts only shared governance structure. Age entry and wild card limits not included.

Question 48:

Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched ?

(a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat

(b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam

(d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Official Answer: (B) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam

Explanation: Tata plant is in Gujarat, not Assam.

Question 49:

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s indigenous new high resolution weather model, the ‘Bharat Forecast System,’ is/are correct ?

Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
It was developed by IIT Delhi.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Official Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation: The Bharat Forecast System aims to provide hyper-local forecasts at Panchayat cluster level. It was developed by the India Meteorological Department (IMD), not IIT Delhi.

Question 50:

Consider the following statements with regard to the film ‘Boong’ :

The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Won BAFTA Children’s & Family Film category; directed by Lakshmipriya Devi; first Indian film to win in this category.

Question 51:

Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct ?

Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Official Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Blockchain ensures immutability (1 & 4) and distributed copies (2). Consortium blockchain (3) is not included in the official key.

Question 52:

An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn’t keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called :

(a) Dropshipping Model

(b) Affiliate Revenue Model

(d) Agency Revenue Model

Official Answer: (A) Dropshipping Model

Explanation: Seller doesn’t keep inventory; third-party supplier ships directly.

Question 53:

Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?

(a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage

(b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy

(d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Official Answer: (C) Access, Usage, and Quality

Explanation: FI-Index is based on these three dimensions.

Question 54:

Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India’s ‘Open Network for Digital Commerce’ (ONDC) initiative ?

(a) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions

(b) To replace private e-commerce players

(d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Official Answer: (C) To break dominance of large platforms by enabling interoperability

Explanation: ONDC democratizes digital commerce, reducing dependence on dominant players.

Question 55:

Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct ?

(a) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.

(b) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.

(c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.

(d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Official Answer: (D) In both cases liability lies with users/banks

Explanation: In Digital Rupee, liability lies with RBI, not users or banks.

Question 56:

Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct ?

Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.
Tokenization of real world assets offers 24 × 7 access, promoting financial inclusion.
Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Official Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Tokenization digitizes assets, provides 24×7 access, and opens investment opportunities.

Question 57:

A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called :

(a) Green Bond

(b) Social Bond

(d) Sovereign Bond

Official Answer: (C) Sustainability Bond

Explanation: Sustainability Bonds combine environmental and social project financing.

Question 58:

Which of the following statements about M1xchange’s role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct ?

M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.
M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.
M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

Official Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation: M1xchange facilitates invoice discounting via TReDS. Not collateral loans or credit rating.

Question 59:

Which one of the following best describes the ‘Crowding Out Effect’ in the context of fiscal policy ?

(a) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending

(b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

(d) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Official Answer: (B) Govt borrowing raises interest rates, reducing private investment

Explanation: Higher government borrowing → higher interest rates → reduced private investment.

Question 60:

Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct ?

Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Official Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: REEs are vital for modern tech; NCMM launched in 2025. India is not second in mining, and REEs are 17 elements, not 13.

Question 61:

Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct ?

‘Aviation Hull Insurance’ covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Official Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Hull insurance covers aircraft but not exactly as described; Montreal Convention does not impose strict liability without conditions.

Question 62:

Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct ?

Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.
Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Official Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Crowdfunding raises small amounts online; SMEs benefit from lower capital costs.

Question 63:

With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details :

R.N. Malhotra Committee – Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India – Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
L.C. Gupta Committee – Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India – Securities and Exchange Board of India
Urjit R. Patel Committee – Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector – Reserve Bank of India
Y.H. Malegam Committee – Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India – Reserve Bank of India

In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Official Answer: (D) 2 and 4

Explanation: L.C. Gupta (SEBI) → derivatives trading; Y.H. Malegam (RBI) → microfinance reforms. Malhotra was GOI, not IRDAI; Urjit Patel was monetary policy, not housing.

Question 64:

Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India :

NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Official Answer: (A) 1 and 4

Explanation: NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits; DICGC insurance not available. Statements 2 & 3 incorrect.

Question 65:

Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) :

MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 only

Official Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: NITI Aayog’s MPI uses Alkire-Foster methodology and 12 indicators. Maternal health & bank account not common with UNDP MPI.

Question 66:

Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct ?

Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Genetic medicines correct faulty genes and use carriers like viruses/lipid nanoparticles. They don’t alter entire DNA sequence.

Question 67:

Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct ?

LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: LLMs predict next words via probabilities and optimize to reduce errors. They don’t guarantee unbiased outputs.

Question 68:

Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct ?

Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Stealth reduces radar cross-section with absorbing materials; can be detected with specific frequencies. Metamaterials not standard.

Question 69:

Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct ?

They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Record cockpit voice & flight data; memory units made of stainless steel/titanium. Beacon emits ultrasonic signals, not red light.

Question 70:

Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct ?

It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Produced via electrolysis using renewable energy; India’s mission targets 50 MMT abatement by 2030. Statement 1 describes blue hydrogen.

Question 71:

Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India’s space programme :

The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: IN-SPACe facilitates private participation; Agnikul Cosmos launched with 3D-printed engine. Skyroot did not develop liquid fuel for GSLV.

Question 72:

Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct ?

They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Drones communicate with each other; GPS spoofing is a countermeasure. Terahertz band not standard.

Question 73:

Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct ?

It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Funded by DBT; aims to catalogue Indian genetic diversity. Not part of Human Genome Project.

Question 74:

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct ?

It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 physical qubits.
Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Official Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Aims to develop 50–1000 qubit quantum computers; includes four thematic hubs.

Question 75:

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct ?

It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Matsya-6000 designed for 3-person deep sea exploration; Samudrayaan is part of mission. Ministry of Earth Sciences, not Ports & Shipping.

Question 76:

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions ?

(a) Esprit de corps

(b) Equity

(d) Delegation

Official Answer: (C) Accountability

Explanation: Mr. X upheld accountability by reporting malpractice and ensuring citizen welfare.

Question 77:

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.

As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.

Consider the following statements with reference to the above :

A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform – including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives – to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process ?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Official Answer: (A) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Acknowledge cultural concerns, create dialogue platforms, conduct ESIA. Statement 2 is insensitive.

Question 78:

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project – a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.

What amongst the following should Ms. X do now ?

Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Recommend removal of contractor and propose limited disclosure to oversight. Immediate public disclosure premature.

Question 79:

X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y’ pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :

(a) X’ is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.

(b) The view of Y’ that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.

(d) The view of only Y’ is correct.

Official Answer: (D) The view of only Y is correct

Explanation: Article 13 includes customs/usages having force of law. X’s exclusion incorrect.

Question 80:

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :

There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

Official Answer: (A) All three statements are correct

Explanation: No Article naming Constitution, repealing 1935/1947 Acts, or specifying commencement date. All three statements correct.

Question 81:

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ?

The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains – built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

Official Answer: (A) 1 and 2

Explanation: RPwD Act (2016) mandates reservations and accessibility; Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on accessibility in infrastructure, transport, ICT. NDFDC is under Ministry of Social Justice, not Corporate Affairs.

Question 82:

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :

Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

(d) All three statements are correct.

Official Answer: (B) 2 and 3

Explanation: Tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram are under Sixth Schedule (not Fifth). Certain tribal incomes exempt from tax (2 correct). Reservation of seats in Panchayats for SC/ST women is provided (3 correct).

Question 83:

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India :

Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) All the three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(c) There is only one correct statement.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Official Answer: (C) Only statement 3 correct

Explanation: Starred → oral answer + supplementary allowed. Unstarred → written answer, no supplementary. So only statement 3 is correct.

Question 84:

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India :

Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) There are four correct statements.

(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Official Answer: (D) No correct statement

Explanation: Chairperson appointed by Lok Sabha Speaker; composition is 20 Lok Sabha + 10 Rajya Sabha; no Minister eligible; term is one year.

Question 85:

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India :

It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy.
One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 only

Official Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Focuses on air defence and strategic autonomy. Nationwide public place shield by 2035 not part of aims.

Question 86:

Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries :

‘Maitri Setu’, built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (D) 3 only

Explanation: Maitri Setu connects Tripura with Bangladesh (not Ramgarh). Jhulaghat connects India–Nepal (not Myanmar). Mechi bridge connects India (Panitanki) with Nepal (Kakarvitta).

Question 87:

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct ?

A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

Official Answer: (C) 1 only

Explanation: Zero FIR can be lodged at any police station regardless of jurisdiction. Preliminary enquiry and electronic obligation not mandatory.

Question 88:

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details :

Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) – To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies – Ministry of Home Affairs
Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) – To investigate complex corporate frauds – Ministry of Finance MCA
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) – To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy – Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) None

Official Answer: (B) 2 rows correct

Explanation: CEIB is under Finance (not Home Affairs). SFIO under MCA is correct. CBI under Ministry of Personnel is correct.

Question 89:

Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India ?

Employment Policy Convention
Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3, 4 and 5

Official Answer: Dropped (no scoring)

Explanation: Official key marks Q89 as dropped. It will not be considered for scoring.

Question 90:

Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi :

The Summit’s intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras : People, Planning, and Progress.
The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.
The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (D) 3 only

Explanation: New Delhi Declaration structured around seven Chakras (3 correct). “Three Sutras” and “Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI” not part of framework.

Question 91:

Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries ?

Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
IMT Trilateral Highway
Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2 only

Official Answer: (A) 1 and 2

Explanation: Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project and IMT Trilateral Highway are India–ASEAN projects. Agartala–Akhaura Rail Line is India–Bangladesh bilateral.

Question 92:

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Project supported by India)

Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project
Restoration of Stor Palace
District Hospital at Dickoya
Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies

List II (Country)

Maldives
Afghanistan
Bhutan
Sri Lanka

Code:

(a) A–1, B–4, C–2, D–3

(b) A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1

(d) A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3

Official Answer: (B) A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1

Explanation: Mangdechhu → Bhutan; Stor Palace → Afghanistan; Dickoya Hospital → Sri Lanka; Institute of Security & Law Enforcement Studies → Maldives.

Question 93:

Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India ?

Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
T-90 MK-III Tanks
Akula Class Submarine

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 2 only

Official Answer: (A) 1 and 2

Explanation: Su-30 MKI jets assembled by HAL; T-90 tanks produced under license. Akula submarines are Russian-made.

Question 94:

Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation :

The ‘Colombo Process’ is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
The ‘Abu Dhabi Dialogue’ is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
The ‘Global Forum for Migration and Development’, created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary-General, is a voluntary, non-binding, informal consultative process open to all UN member states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Official Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Colombo Process is consultative, not binding. Abu Dhabi Dialogue is voluntary, non-binding. GFMD is voluntary, informal, open to all UN members.

Question 95:

Consider the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund on Climate Change (NAFCC) :

It was launched in 2015 to support projects and programmes to combat climate change.
It is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
It provides 100% grant to projects for climate adaptation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Launched in 2015 under MoEFCC. Provides grants but not always 100% funding.

Question 96:

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) is/are correct ?

It was launched in 2013 to promote hybrid and electric vehicles.
It aims to achieve national fuel security by promoting adoption of electric vehicles.
It is implemented by the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Launched in 2013; aims at fuel security via EV adoption; implemented by Ministry of Heavy Industries.

Question 97:

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Cyber Security Policy, 2013 is/are correct ?

It aims to create a secure cyber ecosystem in the country.
It seeks to strengthen regulatory framework for ensuring secure cyberspace.
It aims to create workforce of 5 lakh professionals skilled in cyber security.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Aims to secure cyberspace, strengthen regulation, and build a workforce of 500,000 cyber security professionals.

Question 98:

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy, 2016 is/are correct ?

It aims to create awareness about the economic, social and cultural benefits of IPRs among all sections of society.
It seeks to stimulate creativity and innovation across sectors.
It is implemented by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Promotes awareness of IPR benefits, stimulates innovation, implemented by DPIIT.

Question 99:

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Skill Development Mission (NSDM) is/are correct ?

It was launched in 2015 to provide a strong institutional framework for skill development.
It is implemented by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
It aims to converge skill training initiatives across ministries and states.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Launched in 2015; implemented by Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship; aims to converge skill training initiatives.

Question 100:

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Health Mission (NHM) is/are correct ?

It was launched in 2013 by subsuming the National Rural Health Mission and the National Urban Health Mission.
It aims to provide universal access to equitable, affordable and quality healthcare services.
It is implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Official Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Launched in 2013, subsuming NRHM & NUHM; aims at universal healthcare access; implemented by MoHFW.

🧾 Analysis

Overall Difficulty

The 2026 GS Paper I (D Series) was moderate to tough. While many questions tested factual recall, UPSC continued its trend of asking analytical and applied questions — requiring aspirants to connect concepts with contemporary developments.

Subject-Wise Distribution

History & Culture: Strong presence of ancient and medieval art, iconography, and movements (e.g., Amaravati Stupa, Eka Movement, Buddhist symbols).
Polity & Governance: Questions on Article 13, SC/ST provisions, parliamentary committees, Zero FIR under BNSS 2023.
Geography & Environment: Climate of Andaman & Nicobar, Peninsular Block features, biodiversity (orchids, gibbons, mangroves), REEs, Sagarmala Programme.
Economy: Financial Inclusion Index, ONDC, UPI vs Digital Rupee, NBFCs, MPI, Crowding Out Effect.
Science & Technology: Heavy focus — quantum mission, genome project, drone swarms, stealth tech, black boxes, green hydrogen, AI Impact Summit.
Current Affairs: International conventions, Indo-German MoUs, AI Summit, ASEAN connectivity projects, Mission Sudarshan Chakra.

Key Trends

Science & Tech Dominance: Nearly 25% of the paper tested emerging technologies — AI, blockchain, quantum computing, cyber security, etc.
Environment & Sustainability: Climate change missions, biodiversity, REEs, adaptation funds — UPSC’s emphasis on sustainability continues.
Polity Precision: Questions demanded exact constitutional knowledge (e.g., Article 13 definition of “law”).
Global Affairs: India’s role in ASEAN, Indo-Pacific, conventions, and international cooperation featured prominently.