Explore 10-year analysis of Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims. Discover key trends, high-weightage topics, and important MCQs from 2013 to 2024. Learn how to prepare effectively for Polity in UPSC Prelims 2025 with smart strategies and core resources.
theIAShub | 27 May, 2025 | 13367 | 0 |
One of the most scoring and strategically important subjects in the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination is Polity. Questions from Indian Polity are direct, concept-based, and frequently asked in the exam. Analysing Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims over the last 10 years becomes essential for targeted preparation.
This article offers a comprehensive overview of how Polity has been treated in the exam, question trends, and some sample MCQs to help aspirants prepare smartly.
The Polity section in UPSC Prelims 2025 featured 15 questions, continuing its trend as a core component of the exam. The difficulty level was easy to moderate, with a mix of conceptual and factual questions. Topics such as constitutional provisions, fundamental rights, duties, and the structure of government institutions were prominently covered. Candidates who had thoroughly studied standard sources like Laxmikanth found this section to be one of the more scoring parts of the paper. The clarity of concepts and familiarity with recent constitutional developments played a key role in answering these questions accurately.
To prepare effectively for Polity in UPSC Prelims 2025, focus on understanding the Indian Constitution, its salient features, key amendments, and the structure and functions of government organs. Give special attention to topics like Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, the judiciary, and the electoral process. Regularly practice previous years’ questions to understand the exam pattern. Also, stay updated with current affairs related to political developments, key judgments, and constitutional amendments, as these often influence Prelims questions. A clear grasp of concepts and consistent revision is essential for success in the Polity section.
| Prelims Question Paper 2025 |
| UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 |
1. Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
2. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) III only
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) None of the above statements is correct
3. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
4. Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
5. Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
6. Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II:
In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
7. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
8. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
9. Consider the following pairs:
State. Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
10. With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
11. Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
12. Consider the following pairs:
Provision in the Constitution of India. Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture. The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories. The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
13. Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:
I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
14. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Organization. Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board. Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
15. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I – Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
16. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
The number of Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims has been consistently significant over the past decade. Here’s a detailed look at the subject-wise distribution of questions from 2013 to 2024:
| Year | Polity |
| 2013 | 16 |
| 2014 | 14 |
| 2015 | 13 |
| 2016 | 7 |
| 2017 | 22 |
| 2018 | 13 |
| 2019 | 15 |
| 2020 | 17 |
| 2021 | 11 |
| 2022 | 15 |
| 2023 | 15 |
| 2024 | 18 |
From this data, it is clear that Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims range between 11 and 22 every year. On average, 13–15 questions are asked annually. This high and consistent weightage makes Polity a must-revise subject.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both correct, and II explains I
(b) Both correct, and II does not explain I
(c) I is correct, II is incorrect
(d) I is incorrect, II is correct
(a) Central Statistics Office
(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
(c) Labour Bureau
(d) NTIS Manpower
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4
There are several reasons why Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims 2025 are vital for success:
To master Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims, rely on these core resources:
Make a habit of revising these topics using topic wise PDFs and test series that emphasise Polity questions.
If there’s one subject you cannot afford to neglect in the Prelims, it is Indian Polity. With a consistent weightage of 13–22 questions every year, mastering Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims can significantly improve your selection chances. Through trend analysis, regular revision, and targeted MCQ practice, you can confidently tackle any Polity question in the UPSC Prelims 2025.
Make Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims your core focus and combine it with smart preparation strategies to maximise your marks in this high-yielding section.
Key topics include:
Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth is the most recommended book. It is concise, exam-focused, and covers the syllabus in a structured way.
While exact questions are rarely repeated, concepts are frequently reused. That’s why solving previous year Polity Questions in UPSC Prelims helps in understanding trends and identifying important areas.
Refine your answer writing skills and elevate your UPSC preparation with personalized support and expert feedback.
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